Do beliefs, desires, emotions, etc, physically exist in the brain?
Do beliefs, desires, emotions, etc, physically exist in the brain?
I hold that they do. I hold that concepts have a physical existence and an abstract representation of that physical existence. So for example, we have certain chemical processes existing in the brain which produce an experience which we call love, and we have an abstract representation of this physical process which if often seen as immaterial/mystical/intangible/etc. So when we refer to love we are indirectly and unconsciously referring to the physical existence, in the brain.
Our brain physically controls everything we do with chemical reactions and neurons sending signals etc, our actions are dictated by our brains. So if one denies they exist, physically, in the brain, then they are left with a problem: how can something not be part of our brain structure and still influence/dictate us, our desires, choices, etc? Surely it is nonsense to make such an argument – that something is not part of our physical brain, yet can influence or dictate us.
Many people try to argue a supposed distinction between the physical conditions in the brain, and the ‘mind’ but they never explain what they are talking about:
Exactly what is ‘mind?’
What is its ontology?
Is it physical? If so, how does it differ from the physical conditions in the brain?
If it is not physical, what is it?
I don’t know why people have a problem with reductive physicalism.
As a side note, is there any research on beliefs and desires existing in the brain, as neurons and reactions etc? Such as how they formulate, how they determine our behaviour, which parts of the brain produce such things, etc.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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Don't presume to know how my mind works becuase clearly you do not.
Should I just call you J. Edgar Hoover from now on?
" Why does God always got such wacky shit to say? . . . When was the last time you heard somebody say 'look God told me to get a muffin and a cup tea and cool out man'?" - Dov Davidoff
This is precicely what I am saying is NOT the case. The physical description is not complete. It is not "the brain state". The physical description is an abrstaction in a similar wat to the mental description. Consider what are the fundamental physical properties of any "real" thing? Position? Mommentum? Energy? Time? None of these are actualluy fundamental. The closest we can get is a wavefunction or event or possibly information. All these to me seem to be rather strange abstract concepts, not the sort of thing one would usually sat is physical and yet when it comes down to the real nitty gritty this IS what seems to be fundamental. Does a wave function exist phsycially? Does a number? Or mathematical abstraction? Or information? Can any of these things be defined as physcial properties or things? I don't think they really can, and yet it is preicely these things that are fundamental.
And neutral monism is the idea that there is a single "substance" or underlying structure to reality and both phsyical and mental are useful abstractions of that reality. They are useful and convienient ways of thinking about the world.
Illeatyourdog,
There is no comparison between the concept of love and god here.
While at the level of the brain its true that something happens in both cases, god is supposed to be external to us, while love is internal; hence your analogy is wrong and irrelevant here.
If someone tells you they cannot form new memories, and their brain shows that the region that deals with long-term memory is damaged, then you’ve established they are telling the truth.
Let me rephrase since you have clearly misunderstood. We know enough about mind to say it is physical and rooted in the brain, therefore it is a reasonable to assumption to suggest that what we will learn about mind in the future will also fit our existing view.
What is the physical description an abstraction of?
My position is that our mental concepts are merely an abstraction of the physical brain states.
By saying they are both an abstraction you gave to explain what they are an abstraction of.
What is this “substance”?
Is it not merely matter and energy? (as per materialism)
Is this “substance” physical? If so, what use is it to say “physical is an abstraction of physical”? That makes no sense. Why not just say mental is an abstract of physical, and this physical is ultimately what exists.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
You clearly aren't familair with the notion of searching WITHIN YOURSELF to find God. Or God is INSIDE all of us. Remember, beleivers have an extreme paradoxical view of God of him being both external and internal simultaneously. But that is aside the point. My real point is claim validity. In one experiment you sited, you said that the way the scientists determined if the subjects were in love was by asking them and if they said yes, they assumed they must be in love. This is poor science. For example, let's say the scientists were testing wisdom, to move away from God since that also confuses you, and the way they determined if one was wise was by asking the subject if the subject was wise and if the subject said yes, the scientists assumed the subject must be wise. Would you say the subject in question really is wise simply becuase the subject testified as such? Or would you develop some sort of experiment to test the wisdom claim?
My concern is not with your claim about the mind but with the evidence you are providing for the claim and how that evidence was found.
" Why does God always got such wacky shit to say? . . . When was the last time you heard somebody say 'look God told me to get a muffin and a cup tea and cool out man'?" - Dov Davidoff
A very good question.
No. When we get down to the nitty gritty of quantum physics it would seem that the fundamental way to describe reality is some kind of mathematical abstraction. The wave function of a particle, it seems, is not describable phsycially. Sure we can say what chance that X will happen phsycially if we try to observer it but the wave function is not actually a physical thing. When we atempt to describe it physically we glimpse the limits of the concept "physical". Wave partical duality is an example to this limit of physical description. We can describe an electron physically as either a particle OR a wave but in reality it is neither. Its just some strange wave function which cannot, in itself, be described in physical terms.
Quala? :p
" Why does God always got such wacky shit to say? . . . When was the last time you heard somebody say 'look God told me to get a muffin and a cup tea and cool out man'?" - Dov Davidoff
I think you clearly misunderstodd the research. It is more than merely a case of concluding someone is in love merely because they say so. The research demonstrates a clear correlation between being in love and what takes place in the mind.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
" Why does God always got such wacky shit to say? . . . When was the last time you heard somebody say 'look God told me to get a muffin and a cup tea and cool out man'?" - Dov Davidoff
Well you'll need to read the studies. But going by what I posted it seems to be "love" relating to the two adults in a relationship. How did you not see that from what I posted? It was quite clear.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
I figured that much since you never once mentioned the love of siblings, love of parents of their children, or the love of abstract concepts like art. If thats all I was confused about, I would not have kept the discussion going this long. What I am confused is about is how do the scientists make sure two people are feeling love as opposed to another brain states such as lust? Surely lust must be another brain state right?. How do they know that, in the experiement that documented the rise and fall in certain protiens, they weren't simply monitering lust? Are they just assuming that what brings two people together is, and always, is love?
" Why does God always got such wacky shit to say? . . . When was the last time you heard somebody say 'look God told me to get a muffin and a cup tea and cool out man'?" - Dov Davidoff
Where has this essay gone? I have somebody pulling the 'prove love exists' crap on me, and this sounds like just what I need. Any other suggested reading?
I am new here, so I'll give it a shot. If mind and brain are the same, how did consciousness evolve from non-conscious matter? Also, if we are determined, should we place much trust in our thinking processes? How is free will possible if we are controlled by the mechanistic, electrical and chemical stimuli and catalysts? How can a universal category exist in a finite, contingent mind? What material entity ties the particular or any symbols to that which is symbolized? Doesn't this require volition that overcomes these material causes? A universal can contain an unlimited number of particulars. Where would you store an unlimited number of any particulars in the brain within a category? One thing...I do not hold to Descartes's view of dualism.
Are numbers, propositions, future contingencies, logical law, ethics all made of a material substance? How did the brain even formulate logical law if those same laws weren't already existing apriori? One could not distinguish A from B, etc. These same laws of logic appear to be universally binding upon all minds, not a product thereof. What about transfinite math? Where is this in the brain?
If we take on kelley's view that there is no 'You', but only a physical entity, then ethics are irrational. Who cares who kills, steals or does anything to another if there are no transcendent ethics? Appeal to 'survival' is question begging. Because one seeks survival does not equate to an obligation of such (is/ought fallacy). Where would these logical laws be in the brain that do govern relations between propositions?
How does one know that their perceptions are equal to reality if their mind is controlled by these mechanistic forces?
How does this mind/brain dualism fit into the indiscernibility of identicals? Since mental states are likened to software of a computer and not the hardware, there is a loss of identical relations in brain/mind dualism. Which is the software and which is the hardware? A physicalist must show that brain states and mind phenomena are inseparable to establish any truth. Here is an example from J.P. Moreland: 'my afterimage of a ball (the impression of the ball present to my consciousness when I close my eyes after seeing the ball) may be pink, but nothing in my brain is pink. Mental events and properties have different attributes and therefore they are not identical. One can know their mental states, but not have awareness of brain states. This violates the law of identicals. First person awareness is not identical to brain-state awareness arrived by second-hand knowledge.
A quote from Howard Robinson: 'The notion of having something as an object of experience is not, prima facia, a physical notion; it does not figure in any physical science. Having something as an object of experience is the same as the subjective feel or the what it is like of experience.'
Another point against this physicalist view is that our cells renew to entirely new cells in various parts of the body. Does this mean that 'I' am a different person over time? What about memories; do they remain if certain parts of the brain cells regenerate?
In regards to ethics, if my actions are the result of one brain state acting upon another, how can I be blamed for my actions? Are there logical and moral laws that govern which brain states are true, sound, right or wrong? If so, what absolute binding laws are these? There is nothing in the brain that obligates one brain state to logically connect to another in a syllogistical manner or rational/irrational one.
Since this is the Rational Response Squad, how is rational volition possible given physicalism? If we reduce all to the finite brain, then there are no absolute laws of logic that govern your 'Rationality' in your view here. All is merely subjective and whimsical. You have no objective foundation to require Theists to take on 'oughts' of belief such as non-Theism. This view is entirely self-defeating.
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'But the natural man cannot receive the things of God and neither can he know them, as they are spiritually discerned.' (1 Corinthians 2:14)
A single neuron can be viewed as a cell which performs a very specific function based more or less on a simple idea of selfish competition: be stimulated without having to stimulate. When viewed as a function generator that adapts so that it has to do the least work to get the most reward it should become clear how powerful such a simple thing can be. In fact, we make artificial ones all the time now.
Also consider the inverse: try not to be stimulated by stimulating. Just this device can be useful as a fight or flight sensor. The neuron, connected to a temperature nerve, listens for the signal "are we getting burned?" When the signal comes, the neuron sends a message to the muscles which will stop the signal - the ones that move the limb being burnt. It knows which way to move because of the nerve sending the signal, and knows which muscles to move from its evolution. It can be trained to do something else. The psychology of reward and punishment is inadvertently derived from neuron function.
When you have a large network of such devices, it should be easy to see how the illusion of consciousness could emerge.
Since we are our thinking processes, probably.
Depends on what you mean by free will. You'll have to precisely define what you mean for us to answer that.
There is no such thing as the set of everything - that would lead to a paradox. What do you mean by universal category?
Rather than storing particulars, the brain stores "symbols" in its own "notation." The symbolism of the brain is an array of waves which are produced depending on the stimulus in order to maintain stimulation. Initiative can be seen as neurons starved of input - perhaps that answers your question regarding free will.
Essentially. A number doesn't exist without being either some group/class of entities or represented in a substance such as electrical activity. Since all else after that can be represented in formula I don't think its a great leap to say that they can also be represented symbolically in substance as well.
The answer is they existed in nature prior to formulation as a result of natural processes. It's only our predictive capacity that allowed us to realize many rules before observing them in nature beforehand.
I'm not sure that it's important to answer its location as much as its representation. I can't guess where it is in everyone because I think of it syntactically - so for me it would be among the collection of neurons somewhere between the neurons that do concrete math, discrete math, and philosophy.
It boils down to the fact that our neurons care. Neurons crave stimulation and, for example, death is not very stimulating. Furthermore, causing death makes it more likely that we will incur the punishment of death ourselves. Regardless of the philosophy behind it, the reality is that it is a biological imperative to not want to die unless unduly burdened.
Because the perceptions are the result of their presence in reality. What you're asking is similar to asking "how does a wave know when to rebound from the shore if it's just a bunch of water molecules moving around?"
I see a lot of the same question over and over. Here is an experiment to show how volition is related to neurons being starved of stimulation, the fact that they become lazy when overused, and what happens when they do:
Think of a word, such as red. Keep repeating the word over and over in your mind. Try not to let your mind wander on to anything else but the word. Just keep repeating it. What should happen after a short while is the word won't hold your attention and you'll start to think about other things, just as if you'd tried to think about nothing. Try it with a picture, a memory, etc. Keep trying.
Eventually you'll have to acknowledge that you barely control your own mind, and like it or not neurons are going to fire in order to receive stimulation. Most of what you do is the result of your environment, and the rest is neurons that haven't received much input in a while - your preferences. Suddenly have the urge to call someone? That's the communicative neurons saying "we're bored!"
Boredom is the oldest emotion next to aversion and without it we wouldn't be as intelligent as we are, and I've just illustrated where it comes from.
The problem I think many people- even very intelligent people- have with reductive physicalism is that while mechanistic models of life easily explain the "objective" or "behavior" aspect of consciousness (such as recognizing and responding to stimuli, and in many cases creative thought and problem solving) these models don't account for the subjective experience of consciousness. That's not to say the mechanistic models preclude the existence of subjective consciousness. These models are still valid, but they don't explain why or how we have it.
Think of it this way: if you had access to a virtual reality program based on somebody else's memories or experiences- like the holodecks in Star Trek- you'd still be experiencing the program from your perspective, not the perspective of the person whose experiences the program was based on. Without subjective consciousness we really wouldn't have different reactions to the same stimuli. Without subjective consciousness, presumably we'd all have the same thoughts about everything.
This isn't much of a problem for me. I think that many prominent intellectuals sometimes buy too deeply into adaptationist arguments. I think the high cognitive functions of humans might have been a kind of evolutionary fluke for one thing, and I'm not alone in thinking that. There are some prominent scientists who think such an event is very unlikely to occur again, given the unique combination of variables that drove the evolution of modern humans. However there are many good arguments against that notion, too. The reason I bring it up, however, is to point out that not everything in evolution is necessarily an explicit adaptation. Some traits are the byproducts of other adaptations controlled by linked genes. I think it's at least plausible that our subjective, introspective level of consciousness could have been such a byproduct of related adaptations, possibly those adaptations involved in the other kind of consciousness I alluded to earlier- the more objectively understood, behavioral consciousness that is the subject of science.
“It is true that in the land of the blind, the one-eyed man is king. It is equally true that in the land of the blind, the two-eyed man is an enemy of the state, the people, and domestic tranquility… and necessarily so. Someone has to rearrange the furniture.”
What, like laser-fish?
I agree that some traits are sometimes byproducts of others. Rather, not just some but nearly all traits. It just makes sense that the mechanism would capitalize on side effects as they are readily available without needing time for mutation. It seems obvious to me that subjective experience stems from and is promoted by the adaptation of self-reflection. If I were a betting math student, I'd put some quid on subjective experience existing in some of the higher apes that display a capacity to self-reflect as well. Self-analysis is HUGELY important for higher social interaction and which subjective experience is a major part.
You're probably right about the higher primates, but again that's something which is difficult to scratch with the scientific method alone. Many students of higher primates have nixed the concept of species-specific behavior, instead focusing on the behaviors and personalities of individuals and communities for description. A great example of this is De Waal's work at the Arnhem Chimp Colony, where he describes the inadequacy of depersonalized approaches to working with and studying the behavior of higher primates like Chimpanzees. Certainly chimps, other apes, and some species of monkeys (particularly certain New World monkeys with very ape-like social and behavioral patterns) definitely use self-reflection and probably some degree of abstract thinking to deal with living in a close-knit community of individualists, which is what higher primates for the most part must do. Think about how stressful it is to live in that kind of community, for us and for the rest of the primates. We have to be constantly on guard, trying to figure out what our neighbor is thinking about us, with our "theory of mind." I can't emphasize this enough, higher primates are very much as individualistic as humans, personality-wise, and they deal with a lot of the same social issues: hierarchies and even charismatic authority derived from force of personality. Anyone who's ever watched Chimps can also tell you they have an uncanny sense of humor.
“It is true that in the land of the blind, the one-eyed man is king. It is equally true that in the land of the blind, the two-eyed man is an enemy of the state, the people, and domestic tranquility… and necessarily so. Someone has to rearrange the furniture.”
That these things exist physically in the brain is one thing. It does not necessarily follow that they exist only in the brain (i.e. in a reductionist way).
Ockham's Razor is only as sharp as you are.
Good point.
“It is true that in the land of the blind, the one-eyed man is king. It is equally true that in the land of the blind, the two-eyed man is an enemy of the state, the people, and domestic tranquility… and necessarily so. Someone has to rearrange the furniture.”