Luke 17:2 could refer to the killing of children. It seems kind of vague to me, and I doubt the Bible has anything to say about paedophilia, which is a sexual attraction to prepubescent children.

"Offend" is a crappy translation. The Greek word here is σκανδαλίζω, or "skandalizo," kinda like "scandalize." What it means is more to lead the "little ones" to "stumble ethically" or made to offend, more than to "offend" the kid himself.

I guess this verse can still be interpreted as "don't be a pedophile" only if you interpret this to mean that the kid's to blame, too. Y'know - he shouldn't have been wearing those sexy overalls or whatever. But not only is this a huge stretch of language, it's also a morally reprehensible interpretation, as it places blame on the victim.

A more typical Christian response is to point to the many passages that chastise πορνεία, or "porneia." This word is usually translated as "fornication," an is interpreted by Christians as general sexual immorality, which means essentially whatever the beholder doesn't like. This is a questionable, but plausible, interpretation. Non-biblical Greek sources seem to use this word pretty much for prostitution. And this at least fits for almost all uses of the term in the NT (and other interpretations explicitly don't fit in some instances: e.g. John 8:41). And "prostitution" is also a perfect fit for "idolatry," for which this word is used metaphorically in some instances (e.g. Revelation). But there are some instances where porneia is more than prostitution in the NT, such as 1 Cor 5:1.

Overall, I feel that "harlotry" is the best interpretation for all uses of πορνεία in the NT, with the exception of Paul, who seems to use it as "icky sex," but I'm ultimately undecided on the matter. Probably any honest person would admit there's some wiggle here.

One other attempt I've seen to answer your question is 1 Cor 6:9, which uses the word μαλακός, or "malakos" which means "soft." Just as we sometime use the term, this can also mean "effeminate," a push-over (e.g. a "softy" and is sometimes said of young boys. It's usually translated as "effeminate" in 1 Cor 6:9. I've heard that because this term is sometimes applied to young boys, however, Paul can be understood here to be prohibiting pedophilia. Just read the verse, however, and you can see how this is such a stretch that it puts even Mr. Fantastic to shame.

So, in short, there's no explicit verse that forbids pedophilia. Of course, you should be married to the 12 year old should you choose it. But otherwise, go for it.

If it gives you a boner and it's not your wife, its a sin.
Also, anything that feels good is usually a sin...

If I were to play "mistranslator's advocate," though, I can almost see this. If you know a little Greek, I would make the argument that you can see that Paul is a Jew for sure. He uses Greek words in ways that Hellenized people don't really use them (I think "porneia" is a very good example, for which I argued above). The Greeks wouldn't have used such a word to describe homosexuals since they thought it was okay at the end of the day, but it's at least plausible that Paul may have. He's a Greek-speaker, but also approaches certain moral views from a blatantly Jewish slant. So, it's not completely retarded to think that Paul may have meant homosexuals in this case. I'd say it's not clear, but it's not retarded either.

Again, I barely know any Greek, but from my limited knowledge, Paul's Hebrew background really emerges for me when I look at Paul's writings in Greek, and compare them to both non-Christian Greek sources and even, I would say, the Gospels.