Proving the existence of Jesus as a historical person
The Jesus Seminar is a large group of scholars dedicated to finding the authentic sayings of the historical Jesus. They examined the transmission of sayings from Jesus to the writing of the 5 gospels (Thomas included).
Jesus taught his followers orally. The oral memory best retains sayings and anecdotes that are shown provocative, memorable, and oft-repeated. The most frequently recorded words of Jesus in the surviving gospels take the form of aphorisms and parables. The earliest layer of the gospel tradition is made up of single aphorisms and parables that circulated by word of mouth prior to the written gospels.
With these facts considered, the Seminar formulated key characteristics to authentic the sayings of Jesus. (Note: The seminar only considers 18% of the sayings in the 5 gospels to be authentic to the historical Jesus)
-Jesus' characteristic talk was distinctive. It can usually be distinguished from common lore. Otherwise it is futile to search for the authentic words of Jesus.
-Jesus' sayings and parables cut against the social and religious grain.
-Jesus' sayings and parables surprise and shock: they characteristically call for a reversal of roles or frustrate ordinary, everyday expectations.
-Jesus' sayings and parables are often characterized by exaggeration, humor and paradox.
-Jesus' images are concrete and vivid, his sayings and parables customarily metaphorical and without explicit application.
Other generalizations about his manner:
-Jesus does not as a rule initiate dialogue or debate, nor does he offer to cure people.
-Jesus rarely makes pronouncements or speaks about himself in the first person.
Conclusion: The fact that these characteristics are present in multiple, independent sources (Mark, Q, Thomas, M, L, John) implies a single person to initiate these sayings. Given this information, it is rational beyond a reasonable doubt to consider Jesus to be a historical person.
For this post I am referencing The Five Gospels, by Robert Funk and Roy Hoover. If you want to investigate the sayings of the historical Jesus, pick up this book. Finally, before atheists on this forum ignore me as a fundamentalist Christian I should point out two things: 1) No one who supports the Jesus Seminar is a fundy. 2) I am not a Christian.
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Quote:If you've looked at the historical consensus as you claim you have, it is that Jesus of Nazareth may have been historical - not that it is a certainty. "May be" is the strongest I've seen (admittedly I'm new at this).Well, here's the problem, history nor science claim certainty. And "may be" is a nonsensical term here, and I'd ask that you clarify this more. I can say "may be" for millions of scenarios, maybe Jesus was a space alien, maybe Jesus was a fish, maybe we're all living in the matrix, maybe you can fly and shape shift. So I have no clue as to how you are applying "may be" in a historical sense, or even how you associate the term "strongest" with it?
The proper framework for history is a probability framework. For the question of the existence of the historical Jesus, the actual question would be is it more probable that Jesus existed than not existed? Is it more probable that Gospels are patterned off of an actual historical person (a Jewish rabbi) than not?
The question can be asked as to how do historians determine that it is more probable that Jesus was a historical person than not? Excluding all extra biblical sources and relying on the gospels alone, they do so by doing a reconstruction of the narrative account.
In science we see a pattern of data, and then form a most probable explanation for it. While scientist play with fossils and rocks in restructuring the past, historians who deal with gospels do the same with words and thoughts. A literary reading of he Gospel attempts to convey what they mean, a historical reading of the gospels attempts to determine what is behind the meaning. A literary reading might not focus on discrepancies, while a historical reading will attempt to seek why they are there, as Ahura Mazda did so with the discrepancies with Bethlehem and Nazareth. We can go over a multitude of such discrepancies that are best explained by the writers of the Gospels basing their narrative on a historical person, rather than a purely fictional one.
With the Gospels accounts we have a distinctive character with a distinctive pattern of thought, we have parables, we have the lessons from the sermon on the mount about turning the other cheek, and walking the extra mile, we have stories about the Good Samaritan and the Prodigal son, and etc. etc... And the question would go who do these thoughts belong to?
History makes the claim that the thoughts belong to a distinctive person of history, a Jewish teacher named Jesus.
Quote:3. If what you say about Greco-Roman historians is true (embellishments to the historical characters) why are you defending the Gospels as historical fact?No one here is defending the gospels as historical fact, we're defending the gospels for the purpose of historical reconstruction, that the gospels have historical value, just like other greco-roman biographies have. These accounts don't lose their value because they are not 100% factual, nor because they contain elements of fiction. A greco-roman biography is not stripped of its historical value for claiming Caesar was born of a god.
The pre-modern world doesn't conform to our modern desire for literalism, and that our biographies and histories are 100% factual. In the pre-modern world factual and fictional accounts are entwined, and the line that distinguishes fact and fiction is organic. Just because the accounts contain embellished elements this does not mean that they don't contain facts as well. They may not be 100% factual, but nor are they 100% fictional.
Quote:As far as your question, remember that the writers of they Gospels went back throught the OT to find stuff to match the Jesus character they built. I give them credit for digging through the research and making up the backstory for Jesus. It's easy to match a character to history when you're working backwards from conclusion to premises.This would actually be a good argument for the existence of a historical Jesus, i.e. that it more probable that Gospels writers were working backwards to fit a historical person as the messiah than they were doing so with a fictional character. It doesn't make much sense to claim they were working backwards with a fictional character?
If you were working with a fictional character why create him as "non-messiah", and then work backwards to present him as the "messiah"? If you were working with a fictional messiah, why work backwards at all? If i was to create a fictional messiah I would assume that I would make him a good fit for the role, rather than contrived fit, one that hardly even works. With a forced fit messiah it's more probable that it's forcing of a historical person into the role, rather than a fictional one, that wouldn't involve much or any force at all.
I think I see the confusion here - I'm not a mythicist. Someone claiming to be Jesus could have and probably did exist (Yeshua was a very common name). He could have claimed to be the Messiah (those guys were a dime a dozen too - though if they wanted to make their boy the Messiah why did they never let him say it? Also, why didn't he follow all the messianic prophecies instead of the ones the writers liked?). He may have done some "miracles" as well (the woods at that time were crawling with faith healers)
The fantasy came when they built this guy into the son of Yahweh. The son of Yahweh is the myth not necessarily the human Jesus (though there isn't a lot backing him either).
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How about this for your scale... The original post said that only 18% of the bible is being used, as the rest is either in question or not really from Jesus. This is an admission that the rest of the book is false or made up.
Uhm, no the OP did not say that 18% of the bible is being used, but that 18% of the saying attributed to Jesus in the five gospels (one of which is not included in the Bible) is considered authentic by the Jesus seminar as sayings of Jesus. This is separate from "stories" and the acts of Jesus, and is purely about the "sayings".
But the OP was wrong, in that 18% is not relative to just the five gospels, but "18% of all the sayings attributed to Jesus in all Christian texts from the first three centuries, including gospels the Seminar unanimously voted black (inauthentic) in their entirety, such as the Dialogue of the Savior, the Apocryphon of James, the Gospel of Mary, and the Infancy Gospel of Thomas."
If we were to take an individual Gospel such as Mark, the saying authentic to Jesus determined by the Jesus seminar would be far higher, roughly about 60-65% authentic. But the remaining percentage is not all considered inauthentic, part of the remainder is seen as inauthentic while the other part is not determinable.
There is a number of problems with the findings of the Jesus Seminar but I see no need to go over them, they represent the far end skepticism of the consensus. But regardless the 18% is erroneously used by you, or the OP.
If we have this many made up stories of Jesus, then by the same logic we can add that other 82% to the other side of the scale.
What's not black is not white. What is not evidence for one thing, does not mean it's evidence for the other thing. What is not evidence for innocence is not evidence for guilt.
But the scale we are talking about is not about if the historical Jesus said most of things in the Gospels (which he did according to the seminar if we exclude John), or didn't say most of things in the gospels, but if there was a historical Jesus or not.
The claim of Caesar being born of god, and performing miracles in his Greco-Roman biographies are not evidence for the non-existence of Caesar, nor are claims of Jesus being born of a virgin in two of the four gospels, and performing miracles evidence for the non-existense of Jesus. The invented speeches of the historical subjects of Pluatrach's and Herodutus' Greco-Roman biographies is not evidence for the non-existense of these characters, nor are the words inauthentic to Jesus found in the Gospels, evidence of his non-existense.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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The fantasy came when they built this guy into the son of Yahweh. The son of Yahweh is the myth not necessarily the human Jesus (though there isn't a lot backing him either).
Jesus as the messiah, as the son of God are statements of meaning, history does not validate or invalidate such claims, it is beyond the scope of history to do so, no different than it is beyond the scope of history to determine if my mother is the greatest person that ever lived.
Historical and literary analysis of the Gospels can help us to understand what led to such beliefs, why early followers of Yeshua perceived him as the Messiah, as the Son of God, and God incarnate, one may be even led to accept these beliefs, by what founded these beliefs for them.
To accept the meaning of Christ is faith. And the question of the meaning of Christ is not a matter of history, but what is beyond history, and that is the meaning of things.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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A GOSPEL RANT: Hi, it's me a jesus. I am a christ. You've probably noticed me here at RRS. Yup, I am one with the force thingy, or g-o-d as most call it in awe and confusion. I have existed even mortally since eons before the days of even written language, and I have been murdered, to always be resurrected many many times. I am the eternal infinite law of the unmeasurable parts, of the cosmos of no beginning nor end. Some call me the son. Such names are actually meaningless, as I am what I am, and I am nameless. You are exactly as I, the same, as is the first law, all is ONE. ~~~ umm,
Is it at all odd the "Twilight Zone" series, of many writers has a common flow?
BTW, I'm with god magilum, and vote to send a message of reinstatement to the banned caring poster, of no harmful intention I could detect. Thanks. I forget nothing, me god as you, of all existence.
Words are fun, but dangerous too! Let's be careful, we gods, with our inventions.
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Jesus as the messiah, as the son of God are statements of meaning, history does not validate or invalidate such claims, it is beyond the scope of history to do so, no different than it is beyond the scope of history to determine if my mother is the greatest person that ever lived.
You are correct with this. Though history can show why people of the time concluded that your mother was the greatest person of all time it does so from the surviving biased accounts. The people who lived across the street from your mother might have had a completely different view witnessing events you and others did not know and they never bothered to document it.
Historical and literary analysis of the Gospels can help us to understand what led to such beliefs, why early followers of Yeshua perceived him as the Messiah, as the Son of God, and God incarnate, one may be even led to accept these beliefs, by what founded these beliefs for them.
I don't see how you can tell the motivations and basis of the people who formed these beliefs from clearly biased writing of the early followers. If these people were Jews they knew what the messiah or Moshiach was prophesied to do for them, yet Jesus didn't meet those requirements. In order to understand their acceptance of him as the one somehow the Jewish prophesies had to be reinterpreted. Even Jesus' followers don't seem to be aware of this in their discussions in the Gospels. The Gospels portray the disciples as lacking understanding of what Jesus says. Jews continue to this day to lack understanding of the morphed religion of Christianity.
To accept the meaning of Christ is faith. And the question of the meaning of Christ is not a matter of history, but what is beyond history, and that is the meaning of things.
Your are welcome to your faith but not the assertion that Christ is the meaning of things. It is your interpretation that Christ is the meaning of things based on your faith and acceptance. It is not based on material evidence and such is an assertion.
I have followed your exchanges here and with Rook in the other thread being an observer not a contributor. Rook and others are very clear in their position and you in yours. I on the other hand take the position of I have no clue. 2000 years of time has muddled the waters to the point it is unclear if Jesus was real or not. Well meaning believers destroyed much conflicting and unknown writing over the centuries. There is no way to separate facts from legend accurately. As in the OP, scholars debate and positions are taken making claims that have probabilities that cannot be known. It does not matter to me if Jesus was real or not as he is but a cog in the Yahweh saga. It is not even clear if the surviving Christian beliefs even resemble those of the Jesus believers such as are described in Acts in regards to James. Many sects were begun in the mid to late 1st century and many were exterminated or turned into heresy by the survivor. If Jesus the rabbi is based on a real person it is interesting it is so hard to prove, though the Romans didn't really bother to keep records of all the rebellious Jews they executed. The messiah question is an entirely different matter and Jesus is quite contrary to Jewish understanding and expectations. That is however a different matter.
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"I guess it's time to ask if you live under high voltage power transmission lines which have been shown to cause stimulation of the fantasy centers of the brain due to electromagnetic waves?" - Me
"God is omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, - it says so right here on the label. If you have a mind capable of believing all three of these divine attributes simultaneously, I have a wonderful bargain for you. No checks please. Cash and in small bills." - Robert A Heinlein.
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theidiot wrote:
Jesus as the messiah, as the son of God are statements of meaning, history does not validate or invalidate such claims, it is beyond the scope of history to do so, no different than it is beyond the scope of history to determine if my mother is the greatest person that ever lived.You are correct with this. Though history can show why people of the time concluded that your mother was the greatest person of all time it does so from the surviving biased accounts. The people who lived across the street from your mother might have had a completely different view witnessing events you and others did not know and they never bothered to document it.
theidiot wrote:Historical and literary analysis of the Gospels can help us to understand what led to such beliefs, why early followers of Yeshua perceived him as the Messiah, as the Son of God, and God incarnate, one may be even led to accept these beliefs, by what founded these beliefs for them.
I don't see how you can tell the motivations and basis of the people who formed these beliefs from clearly biased writing of the early followers. If these people were Jews they knew what the messiah or Moshiach was prophesied to do for them, yet Jesus didn't meet those requirements. In order to understand their acceptance of him as the one somehow the Jewish prophesies had to be reinterpreted. Even Jesus' followers don't seem to be aware of this in their discussions in the Gospels. The Gospels portray the disciples as lacking understanding of what Jesus says. Jews continue to this day to lack understanding of the morphed religion of Christianity.
theidiot wrote:To accept the meaning of Christ is faith. And the question of the meaning of Christ is not a matter of history, but what is beyond history, and that is the meaning of things.
Your are welcome to your faith but not the assertion that Christ is the meaning of things. It is your interpretation that Christ is the meaning of things based on your faith and acceptance. It is not based on material evidence and such is an assertion.
I have followed your exchanges here and with Rook in the other thread being an observer not a contributor. Rook and others are very clear in their position and you in yours. I on the other hand take the position of I have no clue. 2000 years of time has muddled the waters to the point it is unclear if Jesus was real or not. Well meaning believers destroyed much conflicting and unknown writing over the centuries. There is no way to separate facts from legend accurately. As in the OP, scholars debate and positions are taken making claims that have probabilities that cannot be known. It does not matter to me if Jesus was real or not as he is but a cog in the Yahweh saga. It is not even clear if the surviving Christian beliefs even resemble those of the Jesus believers such as are described in Acts in regards to James. Many sects were begun in the mid to late 1st century and many were exterminated or turned into heresy by the survivor. If Jesus the rabbi is based on a real person it is interesting it is so hard to prove, though the Romans didn't really bother to keep records of all the rebellious Jews they executed. The messiah question is an entirely different matter and Jesus is quite contrary to Jewish understanding and expectations. That is however a different matter.
I will not contribute much here, because to be honest, I have yet to see a case made validating any claim posited by theidiot. He has surely made a lot of open-ended comments, but as of yet nothing substantial.
What I will contribute is this: Jesus did fit the persona of the suffering servant of God from Isaiah 53. He is David, the son of David, Elijah, Abraham, Moses, Immanuel and yes, he is Jesus - because he will "save the world from their sins" according to Matthew. He is all of these and he is more. He is the messiah of the first century CE Jew - because he is these eponymous characters and in his own way he is an eponymous character. In the Gospels he has no historicity. He is a character in a play, a narrative, and no matter how theidiot wants to qualify that narrative (he continually claims, ignorantly, that the genre is Greco-Roman biography), it still remains a narrative. You can try to do what he wants you to do - equivocate certain things (like parables, sayings, or teachings) to a historical Jesus, all while ignoring their origins - the Hebrew Bible or even the sophists (if Crossan and Mack are correct). You cannot escape the fact that every part of the narrative is important to the story, and fragmenting the story into what theidiot speculates as historical and legend only hinder the question "why". You cannot answer the question 'why' with "because it happened" as it is a false statement. We NEVER (humans never) communicate a story "as it happened" as we use language, which will ultimately always reflect bias, always be told to persuade, always be changed, always carry additional connotations, or it will lose some connotation.
But I have said enough. I now predict that theidiot will complain in several replies to this, and not give one substantial answer or solution to a single comment I made.
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I will not contribute much here, because to be honest, I have yet to see a case made validating any claim posited by theidiot. He has surely made a lot of open-ended comments, but as of yet nothing substantial.
What I will contribute is this: Jesus did fit the persona of the suffering servant of God from Isaiah 53. He is David, the son of David, Elijah, Abraham, Moses, Immanuel and yes, he is Jesus - because he will "save the world from their sins" according to Matthew.
Isaiah 11:11-12, Jeremiah 23:8; 30:3; Hosea 3:4-5, Isaiah 2:2-4; 11:10; 42:1, Jeremiah 33:18, Jeremiah 33:15, Isaiah 2:4, Isaiah 11:6-11:9, Isaiah 11:11-12, Jeremiah 23:8; 30:3; Hosea 3:4-5, Isaiah 2:3; 11:10; Micah 4:2-3; Zechariah 14:9, Zephaniah 3:13.
Since Jesus did not meet the requirements as believed for centuries by the Jews they either missed when schizophrenic Yahweh changed his mind as he was prone to do or Christians are trying to fit a square peg in a round hole. Either one is good enough for me to toss the concept of Jesus as the messiah of the Jews out in my trash.
He is all of these and he is more. He is the messiah of the first century CE Jew - because he is these eponymous characters and in his own way he is an eponymous character. In the Gospels he has no historicity. He is a character in a play, a narrative, and no matter how theidiot wants to qualify that narrative (he continually claims, ignorantly, that the genre is Greco-Roman biography), it still remains a narrative. You can try to do what he wants you to do - equivocate certain things (like parables, sayings, or teachings) to a historical Jesus, all while ignoring their origins - the Hebrew Bible or even the sophists (if Crossan and Mack are correct). You cannot escape the fact that every part of the narrative is important to the story, and fragmenting the story into what theidiot speculates as historical and legend only hinder the question "why". You cannot answer the question 'why' with "because it happened" as it is a false statement. We NEVER (humans never) communicate a story "as it happened" as we use language, which will ultimately always reflect bias, always be told to persuade, always be changed, always carry additional connotations, or it will lose some connotation.
But I have said enough. I now predict that theidiot will complain in several replies to this, and not give one substantial answer or solution to a single comment I made.
____________________________________________________________
"I guess it's time to ask if you live under high voltage power transmission lines which have been shown to cause stimulation of the fantasy centers of the brain due to electromagnetic waves?" - Me
"God is omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, - it says so right here on the label. If you have a mind capable of believing all three of these divine attributes simultaneously, I have a wonderful bargain for you. No checks please. Cash and in small bills." - Robert A Heinlein.
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Let's elaborate on this scale. There are only two possible scenario, two sides of this scale: Jesus existed, or not existed. An even scale implies that the probability for both scenarios is 50/50, and this would be an agnostic view on the subject.
Wait, why the hell do you assign the probability of the existence of a cosmic Jewish zombie, who raises people from the dead and walks on water to be the same as for not existing? All you have to do is to replace Jesus with Superman, or any other literary hero character, and you'll see just how ridiculous that statement is.
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Rook_Hawkins wrote:I will not contribute much here, because to be honest, I have yet to see a case made validating any claim posited by theidiot. He has surely made a lot of open-ended comments, but as of yet nothing substantial.
What I will contribute is this: Jesus did fit the persona of the suffering servant of God from Isaiah 53. He is David, the son of David, Elijah, Abraham, Moses, Immanuel and yes, he is Jesus - because he will "save the world from their sins" according to Matthew.
Jesus may fit the persona of the suffering servant if that was the intent of Isaiah though many Jews don't see it that way.
I think you are making a crucial mistake here in assuming that all Jews had a similar idea of the messiah. Not all Jews thought alike, and Judaism in antiquity was as diverse (if not more so) than Christianity was in antiquity. There are on record over 30 sects of Judaism - it is wrong to assume an orthodoxy or standard dogmatic perspective. Jews thought differently and expressed things differently, often through writing, which is why the Dead Sea Scrolls represent such a diverse group of thoughts and expressions instead of the old perspective now being more and more dismissed by scholars who take the collection of scrolls to be from a general library rather than a specific sect.
To many Jews, the suffering servant (David) IS the messiah. To others, the messiah would be something else. The messiah was only as good as the sect which accepted it.
I don't agree that he met the expectations of the Jews and go with their view that Isaiah 53 is about Israel as a whole not the messiah.
I agree to some extent - Jesus is a representation of Israel as well, however. This is why he will knock down the walls of the temple and rebuild them in three days. He is Israel, who will be destroyed, which has been ruined. But like the old covenant, he will rise up again. Israel will be reborn as it has been previously.
There are different takes on Isaiah 53 in Jewish belief though even the NT seems to indicate that Jesus' own disciples didn't see him that way.
Jesus' disciples were purposefully written to be ignorant, hard-headed, clueless and downright incompetent. It's a literary device to make Jesus seem more wise. The trope of the incompetent disciple is an old one indeed. It goes back to before the composition of the books that make up the Torah in the Ancient Near East, although the trope is relevant to the Hebrew Bible as well.
Jesus also does not meet the other requirements to be the messiah in:Isaiah 11:11-12, Jeremiah 23:8; 30:3; Hosea 3:4-5, Isaiah 2:2-4; 11:10; 42:1, Jeremiah 33:18, Jeremiah 33:15, Isaiah 2:4, Isaiah 11:6-11:9, Isaiah 11:11-12, Jeremiah 23:8; 30:3; Hosea 3:4-5, Isaiah 2:3; 11:10; Micah 4:2-3; Zechariah 14:9, Zephaniah 3:13.
You're looking at this the wrong way. Jesus isn't that messiah. That is the whole point of Mark.
Since Jesus did not meet the requirements as believed for centuries by the Jews
Once more, you're making the mistake of lumping all jewish throught into one category. This is a naive perspective of ancient Judaism. Jewish culture was not whole nor united, not even in Palestine. Barclay has a great book on Jewish thought and lifestyle in the Mediterrainean.
they either missed when schizophrenic Yahweh changed his mind as he was prone to do or Christians are trying to fit a square peg in a round hole. Either one is good enough for me to toss the concept of Jesus as the messiah of the Jews out in my trash.
I understand your willingness to dismiss the premise of this discussion. But let us not get lost in the falsities of the claims in the Gospel narratives. Would you be so crude with The Catcher in the Rye? Probably not, because you would recognize it as fiction, and read it as such, and not be so hostile to the text. It is easy to get lost in people like theidiot, who have no understanding of classical literature, particularly methods of composition, and it is easy to get steered away from the fact that what we are reading is just a story - it becomes a battle for whose Christ is more real. Forget that discussion - it is a distraction. Come back up here to the real discussion - the question of "why". You bring up some very interesting points. For example, why would Mark paint his Jesus as the Messiah if clearly he didn't fit the bill? You can't claim Mark was ignorant of the scriptures - he wasn't. He was well educated and learned philosophy and Greek at a Greek gymnasium. He was well schooled in rhetoric and literature. He knew how to speak and write in multiple languages. He was a ancient renaissance man. He had a purpose to write. Consider these things carefully. And again..."because it happened" is not a valid (nor logical) reason.
Rook_Hawkins wrote:I agree that the Jesus in the Gospels is a character in a play whether based on a real person or myth I don't care as there are too many problems elsewhere. I do not see the Gospels as a biography rather as a means to propagate a belief that hatched from misunderstanding.He is all of these and he is more. He is the messiah of the first century CE Jew - because he is these eponymous characters and in his own way he is an eponymous character. In the Gospels he has no historicity. He is a character in a play, a narrative, and no matter how theidiot wants to qualify that narrative (he continually claims, ignorantly, that the genre is Greco-Roman biography), it still remains a narrative. You can try to do what he wants you to do - equivocate certain things (like parables, sayings, or teachings) to a historical Jesus, all while ignoring their origins - the Hebrew Bible or even the sophists (if Crossan and Mack are correct). You cannot escape the fact that every part of the narrative is important to the story, and fragmenting the story into what theidiot speculates as historical and legend only hinder the question "why". You cannot answer the question 'why' with "because it happened" as it is a false statement. We NEVER (humans never) communicate a story "as it happened" as we use language, which will ultimately always reflect bias, always be told to persuade, always be changed, always carry additional connotations, or it will lose some connotation.
But I have said enough. I now predict that theidiot will complain in several replies to this, and not give one substantial answer or solution to a single comment I made.
Where do you think the misunderstanding came from? Surely you wouldn't consider Tobit a book written based on misunderstanding? What about The Infancy Gospel of Thomas? We're talking about literature here - not some fanatic theist writing down things from memory or second hand accounts. These are narratives. Everything has purpose.
As to how this started it's like trying to find out where a fire originated and determine the cause but do it 2000 years later. Again, I see the argument the Jews make that Jesus does not fit their expectations and agree that he does not.
You're using modern Jews as a means to make a case for something that was written 2000 years ago. That is bad form.
It was their religion and their prophecy so the morphed version where he dies to save man from his sins is tossed away at the beginning.
Incorrect. Once more you're making the flawed claim that all Jews have a same dogmatic belief - this is untrue. Not just for today but in antiquity. (Don't forget Jews for Jesus.) See above add: You're not accounting for Hellenism, Romanizing, and Egyptianizing that was taking place in antiquity. There is also the Second Sophistic, the period where people were grossly engaged in writing fictions and works of fiction, including letters and epistles in the name of other people, some fictitious. Jews were doing this for centuries. There are many pseudepigrapha in both Jewish and Christian camps. Clearly perspectives about the Messiah, Jewish law, and Jewish tradition, were more flimsy than you're giving credit too. Again, this is due to asking the wrong questions.
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Let's elaborate on this scale. There are only two possible scenario, two sides of this scale: Jesus existed, or not existed. An even scale implies that the probability for both scenarios is 50/50, and this would be an agnostic view on the subject.
Actually, although it is true that either Jesus existed or not, we can devise three possibilities:
- The supernatural is real, miracles happen, and Jesus existed as outlined in the gospels. The gospels are historical documents.
- Jesus was a wise man who preached of an alternative reading of Jewish scripture, for which he was killed. After his death his life events were embellished with mythical/supernatural elements added, perhaps as a natural process or intentionally. However a historical foundation may be revealed by removing the these mythical/supernatural elements.
- Christianity originated as a symbolic 'mystery religion'. The early Christians did not believe in a historical leader, rather they believed in a spiritual being who was symbolically scarified for the sins of man. Based on an alternative reading of Jewish scripture, the gospels were written with symbolic, spiritual meaning, which only initiates may have been aware of. Eventually, Jesus became historicized when later believers, unaware of the symbolic basis of the story, started to propagate a historical understanding of the events.
Most scholars accept number two, the rest (the Christian scholars) are in number one. At the moment, very few take the view of number three, I think partly because many simply take Jesus as a given (obviously the Christians do), many probably haven't even given it any thought or research, or they may consider the idea 'to radical'. Number three certainly isn't proven by any means, but I think it should be taken more seriously. In the end what matters is their reasons. Robert Price has said the if we apply the critical methodology with "ruthless consistency" then we should come to complete agnosticism regarding Jesus' historicity.
A poster at the Internet Infidel forums also elaborates on number two and three:
These three categories show why the HJ position is the default one as the best explanation for how the Christian movement began. That is, even though the reasons for regarding the gospels as having any historical value in any sense of the word are thin (primarily due to its heavy reliance on scripture), the HJ position is still perceived as superior since all support for the alternative positions is regarded as subjective. This is despite the fact that 1) all presumed historical gospel episodes can be shown to have been derived from Mark which are in turn based on scripture, 2) outside these stories, there is no other support for them as historical, and 3) the earlier "foundational" material of Paul (and/or his pseudonyms) not only fails to support the gospel tales, actually alludes to a completely different understanding as to the nature of Christ. In actuality, these facts render the HJ evidence just as subjective as the alternatives.However, at least as far as hypotheses go, on the surface, the third option may very well better explain not only the origin of the movement itself, but also the numerous divergent positions that followed. The position is actually not as radical as the HJ camp might suppose as there are many conceptual similarities. Both see Christianity as emerging from an alternate interpretation of scriptures, only the HJ camp claims Jesus was part of this early movement and the gospels contain his deeds, while the alternative suggests the figure of Jesus (the) Christ forms the basis for and is the result of the alternative interpretation and the preaching of this that lead to the idea that he was a once historical figure. The fundamentally conceptual premises with regard to a “new covenant” relating to God work out to be exactly the same whether if delivered by Jesus himself or a group of mystics preaching of him. However working against the HJ position is again, the requirement to explain not only the fantastical elements that are selectively dismissed, but also the correlation to the deeds to the scriptures which would indicate a literary rather than historical origin.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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For example, why would Mark paint his Jesus as the Messiah if clearly he didn't fit the bill? You can't claim Mark was ignorant of the scriptures - he wasn't. He was well educated and learned philosophy and Greek at a Greek gymnasium. He was well schooled in rhetoric and literature. He knew how to speak and write in multiple languages. He was a ancient renaissance man. He had a purpose to write. Consider these things carefully. And again..."because it happened" is not a valid (nor logical) reason.
Although Mark did make various mistakes about Jewish culture and law, which Matthew corrected. With that said, do you think the purpose of Matthew's gospel was to replace Mark's? After all, if you are a Jew and you write a gospel within which you correct the mistakes of your source then surely you would not want that source material to continue to propagate incorrect information about your religion/culture. Could that have been why Matthew even wrote to begin with?
Just a thought....
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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Rook_Hawkins wrote:For example, why would Mark paint his Jesus as the Messiah if clearly he didn't fit the bill? You can't claim Mark was ignorant of the scriptures - he wasn't. He was well educated and learned philosophy and Greek at a Greek gymnasium. He was well schooled in rhetoric and literature. He knew how to speak and write in multiple languages. He was a ancient renaissance man. He had a purpose to write. Consider these things carefully. And again..."because it happened" is not a valid (nor logical) reason.Although Mark did make various mistakes about Jewish culture and law, which Matthew corrected.
I hate to point this out again, but you are making the same mistake that he did. You are assuming there was a central Jewishness in antiquity that all Jews had in common (otherwise you can't make a mistake). This is not the case. What one sect might have deemed as a "mistake", others deemed as "fact". Matthew is "correcting" Mark in the way that the author of the Testament of Abraham is "correcting" the author of Genesis. They are interpreting scripture and reinventing tradition as they see it, for a specific audience who will likely also see it that way. Mark made no mistake, nor did Matthew, they simply were writing for two different peoples at two different times in different parts of the known world at the time.
With that said, do you think the purpose of Matthew's gospel was to replace Mark's?
John Dominic Crossan would have us think so. I do not. The common mistake historians make is that they speculate too often on motives and forget the basics. This is one of those instances. As I stated above, there was no dogmatic orthodoxy for Judaism, and scripture was treated as a "springboard" (per the scholar Erich Gruen) for creativity. This is why, as I stated in the above post, we have so many pseudepigrapha. The Testament of Abraham wasn't meant to replace the Genesis account of Abraham. The Apocalypse of Isaiah wasn't meant to replace Isaiah the prophet. The Gospel of Mark was not meant to replace the Hebrew Bible, and the Gospel of Matthew was not meant to replace the Gospel of Mark. They were just written with different intentions. Consider this in more layman's terms. There is a book right now called Lamb: The Gospel According to Biff, Christ's Childhood Pal. Is this book meant to replace the Gospels? No. It is a bit of fun fiction. The author, Christopher Moore, is drawing upon tropes, characters, and narrative in the Gospels to create a new Gospel. It is, in essence, something that he probably feels strengthens the Gospel narratives. I imagine that Jewish and Christian authors, when creating their narratives, also felt as though they were strengthening the narratives, giving them context, and making them more enjoyable--through their own edifying fiction.
After all, if you are a Jew and you write a gospel within which you correct the mistakes of your source then surely you would not want that source material to continue to propagate incorrect information about your religion/culture. Could that have been why Matthew even wrote to begin with?Just a thought....
Again, no. Like I said, there were more than 30 sects of Judaism, all with varying levels of "Jewishness". As Barclay put it, Jews in antiquity had varying levels of Hellenistic influence and participated either a great deal or very little in Greek and Roman culture (some Jews became Prefects and ordered the Legions to march on their own kin, others became Zealots and rebelled against the established Greek or Roman state). Let me once more put it in laymans terms. I am an American. I am a third generation American, and my family hails from Sicily. My great-grandfather spoke Italian. He was not assimilated into American culture, and when he died past the age of 90, he spoke broken English. My grandfather speaks English and Italian, but his Italian is not as good as his English, and you might say he speaks broken Italian. He is Americanized, but he like many of his generation (he's dangerously approaching 95) are stuck in a decade long gone. My father is completely Americanized. He has an Ipod, words in Corporate America, works hard, and owns his own home. He was raised in the 60's and 70's, has a degree in Business, works out at the gym, loves football - he's your typical American male (as our society would picture it). He speaks one or two words of Italian, knows a phrase or two, but really it is lost on him and I can say I know about as much as he does. My great-grandfather was a Roman Catholic, my grandfather is a deist, my father is an atheist. My mother is a Greek Catholic. My aunt is a Lutheran. My step-mom is a Lutheran. Etc...
My point is that our society is one giant melting pot of ideas, where families are mixed with variety and variety is the spice of life. A metropolis in antiquity like Alexandria or Rome, Ephesius or Galatia, Corinth or Jerusalem was going to be no different. The differences were not hailed as failings or flaws, they were celebrated. This is again why you see such diversity in Jewish and Christian thought through their own writing. Please see my online book about this very subject here:
Do the Gospels Contradict Each Other?
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But I have said enough. I now predict that theidiot will complain in several replies to this, and not give one substantial answer or solution to a single comment I made.
I haven't given a substantial answer to claims you've made?
I have thread over here, that was quite a lengthy and comprehensive response to claims that you've made, that is going on close to four weeks now without you responding. Let's see if individuals here will claim I didn't provide any substantial answers to any claims you've made.
Just two examples from the post would prove this wrong. You claimed that greco-roman biographies are not written pseudonymously, in that post I proved that false. You claimed that "Jesus is Odysseus", claimed that MacDonalds theory in support of this, is accepted by "every critical historian" (which you still have not validated this claim). In my post I revealed a number of the claims MacDonald makes in the Odysseus and Jesus comparison, as a clearly deluded joke. Here's one clear delusion, let's see if you or anyone else here will come to MacDonald's defense:
And to top in all off in Mark 14, the verses used in this comparison, says it’s the day of the Jewish Passover. Every Jew in living in first century Jerusalem is eating a supper that includes wine, and meat. This is the kind of hooey that gives me no desire to waste over $100 bucks on your book list.""Like this supposed similarity: “Hero and men eat supper, including wine”, from the Odyssey’s: "[W]e feasted our fill on meat and wine", and from Mark 14: “[T]hey were ...eating [also drinking "the fruit of the vine"]”. You mean to tell me, both Jesus and Odysseus ate food? Oh shit that means, those French dudes who drink wine with their Lamb Chops are Odysseus as well!
I went over a few more of these supposed similarities in this thread, that you have yet to respond to:
http://www.rationalresponders.com/forum/14997
After reading my post I challenge you or anyone else to defend MacDonald, or to take up his claims again.
In an unfinished post that I started writing on, but I didn't post yet, I was doing a pshychological comparison of mythicisist and bible code believers, MacDonalds comparison are clear examples of this, so is your "Jesus and Romulus" comparison:
I’m going to use his (Hawkins, well actually Carrier I believe, who Hawkins is endorsing)comparison Romulus and Jesus: “But Julius Proculus was coming from Alba Longa; the moon was shining, and there was no need of a torch, when of a sudden the hedges on his left shook and trembled. He recoiled and his hair bristled up. It seemed to him that Romulus, fair of aspect, in stature more than human, and clad in a goodly robe, stood there in the middle of the road and said (Cicero, Republic 2.10).” From this he reads, like a classic mentality of such a reader would that “Julius did not know who the man was at first, clad as he was in a “goodly robe”. Just like in Luke’s Emmaus narrative has the disciples not recognizing that the man was Jesus, because their eyes were prevented from recognizing him. That would be a remarkable similarity if it were true, but sadly it’s just another case of trying to tell me it’s Sapient in an ink plot. Nothing in the above quote implies that “Julius did not know who the man was at first”, in fact it says the exact opposite, that when he saw the man he recognized him as Romulus. And classic of bible code mentality, Romulus hiding in the bushes, has an “uncanny” similarity to the disciples inability to recognize the man as Christ. "Rather than creating a strawman Mythicist, I’m going to use our beloved Rook Hawkins, our resident ancient text expert, and historians, to reveal this sort of mentality in him.
Please, don't accuse me of not responding substantially to any of your claims, you and I both know that's not true, even just these two minor examples above show that I have, and this lengthy post right here: http://www.rationalresponders.com/forum/14997, shows that I have as well.
But I'm not going to continue debating you in this thread, I might use what you say to address the questions raised by others, but that's about it. I responded to you in length already, and addressed a number of the concerns you raised here in it, and I expect a response, because I'm not going to waste my time repeating what I already said there, or devoting the time that I did in writing that post to person who pleads the fifth.
Here's the link again, to that thread, when you have time respond to that, rather than attempting to waste my time repeating the same things again here to you: http://www.rationalresponders.com/forum/14997
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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I hate to point this out again, but you are making the same mistake that he did. You are assuming there was a central Jewishness in antiquity that all Jews had in common (otherwise you can't make a mistake). This is not the case. What one sect might have deemed as a "mistake", others deemed as "fact". Matthew is "correcting" Mark in the way that the author of the Testament of Abraham is "correcting" the author of Genesis. They are interpreting scripture and reinventing tradition as they see it, for a specific audience who will likely also see it that way. Mark made no mistake, nor did Matthew, they simply were writing for two different peoples at two different times in different parts of the known world at the time
I was referring to his 'mistakes' about Jewish laws and customs, such as having Jews work on the sabbath, misquoting the 10 commandments, attributing gods words to Moses, all of which, I've read, no Jew would do (and this is why, it's argued, Mark was not a Jew). If these had multiple documented interpretations then my mistake.
As todangst has argued, religion is just a projection of the believer, which fits in with what you said: each individual in antiquity simply projected their own (or sects) desires onto scripture.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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pauljohntheskeptic wrote:
Jesus may fit the persona of the suffering servant if that was the intent of Isaiah though many Jews don't see it that way.
I think you are making a crucial mistake here in assuming that all Jews had a similar idea of the messiah. Not all Jews thought alike, and Judaism in antiquity was as diverse (if not more so) than Christianity was in antiquity. There are on record over 30 sects of Judaism - it is wrong to assume an orthodoxy or standard dogmatic perspective. Jews thought differently and expressed things differently, often through writing, which is why the Dead Sea Scrolls represent such a diverse group of thoughts and expressions instead of the old perspective now being more and more dismissed by scholars who take the collection of scrolls to be from a general library rather than a specific sect.
Actually I said many not all, I am aware there were many sects with different beliefs. The mistake I made was thinking the majority saw it the way I described. Since there were no poll takers such as Harris 2000 years ago asking their views and documenting it we really don't know what views dominated. Thanks to multiple wars with the Romans and Christian persecution much of the literature was also destroyed. Then of course a lot was oral as well until 2nd and third centuries. So just because literature and writing isn't in our hands today doesn't mean it wasn't a belief of a Jewish sect. It's likely views differed from village to village as well as the influences you point out from Egypt, Rome and Hellenism. Thanks for pointing out my errors, I was getting sloppy.
To many Jews, the suffering servant (David) IS the messiah. To others, the messiah would be something else. The messiah was only as good as the sect which accepted it.
Again, I knew this but was as you say using the views of the Jews of today to argue.
Quote:There are different takes on Isaiah 53 in Jewish belief though even the NT seems to indicate that Jesus' own disciples didn't see him that way.Jesus' disciples were purposefully written to be ignorant, hard-headed, clueless and downright incompetent. It's a literary device to make Jesus seem more wise. The trope of the incompetent disciple is an old one indeed. It goes back to before the composition of the books that make up the Torah in the Ancient Near East, although the trope is relevant to the Hebrew Bible as well.
OK, though in some ways the disciples also show ignorance of the message being propagated as well as the messiah's actions. They seem to support the idea he will be the leader king on Earth as described in the prophecies and are very surprised over his predictions of being killed.
Once more, you're making the mistake of lumping all jewish throught into one category. This is a naive perspective of ancient Judaism. Jewish culture was not whole nor united, not even in Palestine. Barclay has a great book on Jewish thought and lifestyle in the Mediterrainean.
I agree, I generalized too much.
Quote:they either missed when schizophrenic Yahweh changed his mind as he was prone to do or Christians are trying to fit a square peg in a round hole. Either one is good enough for me to toss the concept of Jesus as the messiah of the Jews out in my trash.I understand your willingness to dismiss the premise of this discussion. But let us not get lost in the falsities of the claims in the Gospel narratives. Would you be so crude with The Catcher in the Rye? Probably not, because you would recognize it as fiction, and read it as such, and not be so hostile to the text. It is easy to get lost in people like theidiot, who have no understanding of classical literature, particularly methods of composition, and it is easy to get steered away from the fact that what we are reading is just a story - it becomes a battle for whose Christ is more real. Forget that discussion - it is a distraction. Come back up here to the real discussion - the question of "why". You bring up some very interesting points. For example, why would Mark paint his Jesus as the Messiah if clearly he didn't fit the bill? You can't claim Mark was ignorant of the scriptures - he wasn't. He was well educated and learned philosophy and Greek at a Greek gymnasium. He was well schooled in rhetoric and literature. He knew how to speak and write in multiple languages. He was a ancient renaissance man. He had a purpose to write. Consider these things carefully. And again..."because it happened" is not a valid (nor logical) reason.
I completely agree the Gospels are fiction for many reasons including their inaccuracy such as with the obvious as in Luke with the census and Matthew with the baby killing ordered by Herod. The attack on the moneychangers by Jesus in Mark and Matthew are also indication of fiction. That would be unlikely due to all of the Temple guards including Roman right before the Passover. There are many places that show the writing is fiction though believers accept it as real.
pauljohntheskeptic wrote:I agree that the Jesus in the Gospels is a character in a play whether based on a real person or myth I don't care as there are too many problems elsewhere. I do not see the Gospels as a biography rather as a means to propagate a belief that hatched from misunderstanding.
Where do you think the misunderstanding came from? Surely you wouldn't consider Tobit a book written based on misunderstanding? What about The Infancy Gospel of Thomas? We're talking about literature here - not some fanatic theist writing down things from memory or second hand accounts. These are narratives. Everything has purpose.
Tobit and The Infancy Gospel of Thomas clearly are literature. I say misunderstanding because I don't see where this view of the messiah originated. I agree the Gospels are fiction but don't see what was the point. If Jesus was represented as the nation Israel then I see how it is a narrative and a play. What you are saying is it is like other literature of the time such as Roman-Hellenistic literature where the gods were part of the story? That makes more sense than any other explanation.
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Rook_Hawkins wrote:pauljohntheskeptic wrote:
Jesus may fit the persona of the suffering servant if that was the intent of Isaiah though many Jews don't see it that way.
I think you are making a crucial mistake here in assuming that all Jews had a similar idea of the messiah. Not all Jews thought alike, and Judaism in antiquity was as diverse (if not more so) than Christianity was in antiquity. There are on record over 30 sects of Judaism - it is wrong to assume an orthodoxy or standard dogmatic perspective. Jews thought differently and expressed things differently, often through writing, which is why the Dead Sea Scrolls represent such a diverse group of thoughts and expressions instead of the old perspective now being more and more dismissed by scholars who take the collection of scrolls to be from a general library rather than a specific sect.
Actually I said many not all, I am aware there were many sects with different beliefs. The mistake I made was thinking the majority saw it the way I described. Since there were no poll takers such as Harris 2000 years ago asking their views and documenting it we really don't know what views dominated. Thanks to multiple wars with the Romans and Christian persecution much of the literature was also destroyed. Then of course a lot was oral as well until 2nd and third centuries. So just because literature and writing isn't in our hands today doesn't mean it wasn't a belief of a Jewish sect. It's likely views differed from village to village as well as the influences you point out from Egypt, Rome and Hellenism. Thanks for pointing out my errors, I was getting sloppy.
Fair enough. I appreciate your honesty.
Rook_Hawkins wrote:To many Jews, the suffering servant (David) IS the messiah. To others, the messiah would be something else. The messiah was only as good as the sect which accepted it.
Again, I knew this but was as you say using the views of the Jews of today to argue.
Once more, thank you for being honest.
Rook_Hawkins wrote:
Quote:There are different takes on Isaiah 53 in Jewish belief though even the NT seems to indicate that Jesus' own disciples didn't see him that way.Jesus' disciples were purposefully written to be ignorant, hard-headed, clueless and downright incompetent. It's a literary device to make Jesus seem more wise. The trope of the incompetent disciple is an old one indeed. It goes back to before the composition of the books that make up the Torah in the Ancient Near East, although the trope is relevant to the Hebrew Bible as well.
OK, though in some ways the disciples also show ignorance of the message being propagated as well as the messiah's actions. They seem to support the idea he will be the leader king on Earth as described in the prophecies and are very surprised over his predictions of being killed.
I actually read the opposite. Take for example the transfiguration. Jesus is on the mountain, and Elijah and Moses appear. This is clearly an expression of several theological points in Mark. Jesus is Moses, climbing Mount Sinai. He is greeting by two patriarchs who appear in form, who were also taken up to heaven. Although the scriptures do not have Moses going to Heaven in an ascension, in pseudepigrapha, as well as Philo and Josephus, Moses is lifted to heaven on a cloud. Elijah, of course, is also taken to heaven on a chariot, which is used in other pseudepigrapha as a means of transporting earthly men to the heavenly body, like Abraham and Enoch (who is also portrayed as being lifted up to heaven on a cloud). Jesus, like Moses, is recieving the covenant of God from Moses (who is passing the torch), but Mark also dispells the rumor that Jesus is Elijah. He is, in fact, taking over for them, being both the prophet and the savior. When he comes down from the mountain with Elijah and Moses, the disciples quiver in fear, Peter especially, who offers to set up tents for them. At once they both "vanish". This is a prediction of Jesus' own resurrection. When Jesus asks them who they think he is, they answer affirmatively, that he is the messiah, the son of God. The secret is told and the reader understands. Here we have the disciples witnessing the miraculous, and indeed the miraculous is always accompanied by praise of his messiahship. It is not as you suggest, where his disciples believe him to be the messiah because he is doing messiah things. They accept his messiahship based on his deeds, miraculous as they are. But they do so in a way that imitates Moses in the wilderness, where his people are constantly demanding a sign. It is only with a sign that his people understand and believe. John catches this, which is why he says "Blessed is he who believes without seeing."
Rook_Hawkins wrote:Once more, you're making the mistake of lumping all jewish throught into one category. This is a naive perspective of ancient Judaism. Jewish culture was not whole nor united, not even in Palestine. Barclay has a great book on Jewish thought and lifestyle in the Mediterrainean.
I agree, I generalized too much.
Rook_Hawkins wrote:Quote:they either missed when schizophrenic Yahweh changed his mind as he was prone to do or Christians are trying to fit a square peg in a round hole. Either one is good enough for me to toss the concept of Jesus as the messiah of the Jews out in my trash.I understand your willingness to dismiss the premise of this discussion. But let us not get lost in the falsities of the claims in the Gospel narratives. Would you be so crude with The Catcher in the Rye? Probably not, because you would recognize it as fiction, and read it as such, and not be so hostile to the text. It is easy to get lost in people like theidiot, who have no understanding of classical literature, particularly methods of composition, and it is easy to get steered away from the fact that what we are reading is just a story - it becomes a battle for whose Christ is more real. Forget that discussion - it is a distraction. Come back up here to the real discussion - the question of "why". You bring up some very interesting points. For example, why would Mark paint his Jesus as the Messiah if clearly he didn't fit the bill? You can't claim Mark was ignorant of the scriptures - he wasn't. He was well educated and learned philosophy and Greek at a Greek gymnasium. He was well schooled in rhetoric and literature. He knew how to speak and write in multiple languages. He was a ancient renaissance man. He had a purpose to write. Consider these things carefully. And again..."because it happened" is not a valid (nor logical) reason.
I completely agree the Gospels are fiction for many reasons including their inaccuracy such as with the obvious as in Luke with the census and Matthew with the baby killing ordered by Herod. The attack on the moneychangers by Jesus in Mark and Matthew are also indication of fiction. That would be unlikely due to all of the Temple guards including Roman right before the Passover. There are many places that show the writing is fiction though believers accept it as real.
Rook_Hawkins wrote:pauljohntheskeptic wrote:I agree that the Jesus in the Gospels is a character in a play whether based on a real person or myth I don't care as there are too many problems elsewhere. I do not see the Gospels as a biography rather as a means to propagate a belief that hatched from misunderstanding.
Where do you think the misunderstanding came from? Surely you wouldn't consider Tobit a book written based on misunderstanding? What about The Infancy Gospel of Thomas? We're talking about literature here - not some fanatic theist writing down things from memory or second hand accounts. These are narratives. Everything has purpose.
Tobit and The Infancy Gospel of Thomas clearly are literature.
Indeed. Thomas in particular is relevant. See how the character of Jesus changes? Note how the athor, certainly a Christian, edited the words of his Lord, and created this whole narrative? It was accepted as scripture by Christians who knew the story was fabricated. Why do you think that is? Not only from the believers in the tale of the infancy Gospel, but especially the author? Unless, that is, the author knew he was fabricating a story based off another fabrication. It is often assumed that the authors believed what it is they were writing. But obviously that is not true for the fiction authors today. It certainly would stand that fiction authors in antiquity, as educated as they were, did not believe it either.
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Thanks pauljohn and Rook. Years ago I read most of the recently found gnostic "books" and it was Thomas who jumped out at me. Basically he wrote that to know , to understand, the meaning of jesus message was to be as jesus yourself, to be equal, to understand all is ONE, and this is the "good word", to pass on. So very atheistic, no master, no superstition, no idol worship.
Are there any more such scroll verses that you guys can recall? My mom, when I was a kid presented jesus as atheistic, and scorned the organized dogmatic church, as Khalil Gibran did, whom she adored.
Like shit, I google "Jesus Is You", and all I get is crap religion. ( Oh, and my dad was a Carl Sagan , Bertrand Russell , Jacques Cousteau, Carl Jung, Nietzsche etc preacher, lucky dumb me.
For me, Jesus is simply a "lable" of ancient philosophy views, regarding what a perfect christ/man would be or is, written my many, wise and dumb.
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He is a character in a play, a narrative, and no matter how theidiot wants to qualify that narrative (he continually claims, ignorantly, that the genre is Greco-Roman biography)
Please, it's our resident historian and ancient text expert who is ignorant of what a Greco-Roman biography is, not me. I don't makes erroneous claims such as they are not written pseudonymously, and that they don't incorporate narrative elements, and etc.., all claims that have been proven false by me.
I went over greco-roman biographies with you in this thread: http://www.rationalresponders.com/forum/14997, and you have the audacity of accusing me of being ignorant, when you have yet to, after an entire month now, respond to it?
Anyone who knows a bit about the historical method, and ancient history, knows who out of the two of us is ignorant, fanboys might not. But I suggest you keep my name out your mouth. If you want to pretend like that lengthy reply to you is not there, then do so, but don't make claims of me being ignorant, when I spent a good deal of time writing that post, responding comprehensively to the majority of the claims you've made.
I'm far from ignorant Mr. Hawkins, so think again. I'm still looking forward to taking you on, to drop proponents of the Jesus myth hypothesis down a few notches, you have my response waiting over there in the thread I linked. And I'm gonna take the reason why you haven't replied for a month now, as you waving your white flag in defeat, but you're more than welcome to prove me wrong.
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So far the only "proof" I've seen is can be boiled down to:
The Gospels are Greco-Roman biographies. Biographies can only be written about people that existed. so, Jesus must have existed because biographies were written about him.
I'm an actor - I write "biographies" like this when I'm preparing for a role. I just call them character sketches. It doesn't mean that that person actually existed or isn't an amalgam of other characters. It's simply a backstory I create to aid in my portrayal of the character on stage.
That, in a nutshell, is why I can see the reasonableness of the Gospels being extended character sketches - I write them myself.
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So far the only "proof" I've seen is can be boiled down to:
Well, if you are looking for "proofs" you are not going to find any, since history as well as science do not provide "proofs".
The Gospels are Greco-Roman biographies. Biographies can only be written about people that existed. so, Jesus must have existed because biographies were written about him.
Uhm, in order to be classified as a biography written in Greco-Roman world it would have to be written about a person that existed. But there is distinction between biographies written in the Greco-Roman world, and modern biographies. Even Hawkins will concede that Greco-Roman biographies unlike modern biographies uses narrative elements.
A simple way of deciding if the Gospels are Greco-Roman biographies or not, is if the patterns that emerge from them are better explained by the subject being based on a historical person or not. This is the argument made by the other two posters, as well as myself. An inverse of this question might also be asked: Are the Gospels written in a pattern and style that we would expect of a biography written in the Greco-Roman world about a Jewish teacher who was perceived as the Christ?
I went over this in length in my other thread: http://www.rationalresponders.com/forum/14997 (the one Hawkins has refused to respond to for the past month)
Mythicist such as Hawkins makes desperate attempts to refute the "best explanation", by making claims such as "Jesus is Odysseus", "Jesus is Romulus". If these claims were true, they would actually make excellent cases for the mythicist position, but sadly they are all nothing but a pile of poop, that I went over briefly in this thread and more in length in the thread I linked you to, and i challenge anyone after reading my refutation of them, to suggest otherwise.
And if Hawkins is willing to be intellectually honest he will concede this point as well, that his claim that "Jesus is Odysseus" is bogus. But I won't be too quick to pass judgement, until I see how he plays it.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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Quote:So far the only "proof" I've seen is can be boiled down to:Well, if you are looking for "proofs" you are not going to find any, since history as well as science do not provide "proofs".
Quote:The Gospels are Greco-Roman biographies. Biographies can only be written about people that existed. so, Jesus must have existed because biographies were written about him.Uhm, in order to be classified as a biography written in Greco-Roman world it would have to be written about a person that existed. But there is distinction between biographies written in the Greco-Roman world, and modern biographies. Even Hawkins will concede that Greco-Roman biographies unlike modern biographies uses narrative elements.
A simple way of deciding if the Gospels are Greco-Roman biographies or not, is if the patterns that emerge from them are better explained by the subject being based on a historical person or not. This is the argument made by the other two posters, as well as myself. An inverse of this question might also be asked: Are the Gospels written in a pattern and style that we would expect of a biography written in the Greco-Roman world about a Jewish teacher who was perceived as the Christ?
I went over this in length in my other thread: http://www.rationalresponders.com/forum/14997 (the one Hawkins has refused to respond to for the past month)
Mythicist such as Hawkins makes desperate attempts to refute the "best explanation", by making claims such as "Jesus is Odysseus", "Jesus is Romulus". If these claims were true, they would actually make excellent cases for the mythicist position, but sadly they are all nothing but a pile of poop, that I went over briefly in this thread and more in length in the thread I linked you to, and i challenge anyone after reading my refutation of them, to suggest otherwise.
And if Hawkins is willing to be intellectually honest he will concede this point as well, that his claim that "Jesus is Odysseus" is bogus. But I won't be too quick to pass judgement, until I see how he plays it.
As I said, I'm not a mythicist though I can see possibilities for the position.
Now...
Love the way you completely glossed my point about the character sketch, a biography of a fictional character. As I said, I write them frequently so I know it's possible to do so.
What makes the Gospels biographies and not a character sketch for Jesus the son of Yahweh?
Historical settings? Comics have those.
Real events? Which miracles were recorded in other sources so we can have corroboration?
Your whole position comes down to "the Gospels are biographies because they claim to be". John 20:31 stands against you in it's stated purpose. Or is John excepted as a biography?
"I do this real moron thing, and it's called thinking. And apparently I'm not a very good American because I like to form my own opinions."
— George Carlin
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Love the way you completely glossed my point about the character sketch, a biography of a fictional character. As I said, I write them frequently so I know it's possible to do so.
I didn't gloss over your point, I understood your point as a anachronistic understanding of modern biographies, and biographies written in the Greco-Roman world. If I understood incorrectly, I ask that you clarify what you are getting at more.
What makes the Gospels biographies and not a character sketch for Jesus the son of Yahweh?
Again, after you claimed not to be a mythicist I ask what exactly do you mean by this? Do you mean something along the lines that writers of the Gospel wrote a narrative about a historical jewish teacher, interpreting him as the son of Yahweh?
Your whole position comes down to "the Gospels are biographies because they claim to be". John 20:31 stands against you in it's stated purpose. Or is John excepted as a biography?
Did I really say "the gospels are biographies because they claim to be"?
And what have I repeatedly said about greco-roman biographies? That they incorporate narrative elements, that they attempt to convey the meaning of the lives of their subject. All the gospels not just John are written to convey the meaning of the historical person of Jesus as the true messiah, the Christ.
While the conveying of meaning might be style we oppose of in the writing of modern biographies, it was the norm from pre-modern world, who didn't have our dogmatic desire for literalism, and actual history, but desired the conveying of the meaning of it.
The Gospels are not written in the standard we would demand of modern biographies, but they are written in the style of biographies of the greco-roman world.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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Your view seems to be tht Jesus is real because the Gospels were written in the Greco-Roman biographical style and no biographical writer of that time would write about a person unless he existed.
I believe that the gospel writers may have had a human model. He may have been named Yeshua and may have been a rabbi claiming to be the Messiah.
Personally I subsribe to a view that the model may have been an amalgamation of several characters that the authors knew or knew of. The writers knew the hero myths of that time as well as the Hebrew scripture.
I see this amalgamation being named Jesus Christ as they needed a miracle working "anointed deliverer" (what the name means) as the main character for the story they were writing.
The person or people they built the pattern from may have been real (some of them anyway). The end product that made it into the Gospels is too embellished to be anything more than a myth.
Or are you saying that there was really a Rabbi who was born of a virgin and working miracles out at that time? I'm not asking you if you believe that there might have been someone who claimed it - do you believe that such a person literally existed? The gospel writers seemed to. They didn't say Jesus claimed to be the son of God - they said he was and is.
"I do this real moron thing, and it's called thinking. And apparently I'm not a very good American because I like to form my own opinions."
— George Carlin
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Your view seems to be tht Jesus is real because the Gospels were written in the Greco-Roman biographical style and no biographical writer of that time would write about a person unless he existed.
No, thats not what I said, the Gospels are not biographies written in the Greco-Roman world because their authors had some sort of classification as biographers. I said if the Gospels were not written about a historical person then they wouldn't be classified as a biography writing in the Greco-Roman world. If the mythicist position was shown to be the correct one, then the gospels would no longer be considered a biography written in the Greco-Roman world.
I believe that the gospel writers may have had a human model. He may have been named Yeshua and may have been a rabbi claiming to be the Messiah.
Well, "may have" is quite useless term here.
If you said it's more probable than not that the gospel writers used a human model, a jewish rabbi, named Yeshua who was perceived as the messiah, then you're pretty much in agreement with the historical consensus and the other 2 posters here. When historians (excluding fundies) claim that Jesus existed as historical person, this is what at the bare minimum what they are implying.
Personally I subscribe to a view that the model may have been an amalgamation of several characters that the authors knew or knew of. The writers knew the hero myths of that time as well as the Hebrew scripture.
This is useless claim to me. And I prefer to see the the actual cases of amalgamation you're making here. If you're referring to the Gospel writers use of narrative topoi to parallel the life of Jesus with the life of Moses, in some parts of the gospel, you'd find little argument from me. Such narrative devices are used for other historical religious figures as well, such as Elder Hillel's life being made parallel to elements in the life of Moses, and even Mohammed whose conflicts with the pagan chieftains are painted as parallel to conflict of Jesus and the Pharisees.
When you start to venture past hebrew scripture to pagan "hero myths" you're venturing into poop territory as Hawkins did with Odysseus and Romulus, so I'd be careful in making such claims, to make sure that you have your facts straight.
Or are you saying that there was really a Rabbi who was born of a virgin and working miracles out at that time?
No I don't believe Jesus was born of a virgin, I doubt that some God came and revealed this to the the writers of two gospels accounts that mention it, or that the writers interviewed Mary and found this out themselves.
Symbolism is form of language, that is used to convey something. When writers of Greco-Roman biographies write of Caesar as born of the Gods, what is meaning of writing this? What you don't find in ancient writings in modern expressions like "Caesar was an extraordinary person", what you find in the replace is expressions like "Caesar was born of a God". I believe this is the case when it comes to the Gospels, but it's reasonable to conclude that the two gospel writers wrote of Jesus as a product of immaculate conception, to back fill the fulfillment of an erroneous reading of a messianic prophecy.
As for the miracle parts, judging as you said previously that miracles workers where a dime a dozen, the notion of Jesus being a 1st century miracle worker is quite probable, performing psychosomatic ones, rather than supernatural ones. But for the Gospel writers the miracles have a narrative purpose, symbolic representations of the message of Jesus, and the difficulty of conceiving the meaning of it. In passages in which Jesus' own followers don't immediately conceive the meaning, and are eventually enlightened, you see parallel miracles such as a blind man regaining his sight.
I'm not asking you if you believe that there might have been someone who claimed it - do you believe that such a person literally existed? The gospel writers seemed to. They didn't say Jesus claimed to be the son of God - they said he was and is.
Well they didn't just say Jesus claimed to be the Son of God, they believed he was the son of God as well. To ask if i accept their belief, the Jesus of the faith tradition, is a question beyond a historical one. It's a question about my own personal beliefs, that acknowledge the humanness of the bible, and the gospels. It's not a question of if i take every part of the Gospel as literal or not, but if I accept the meaning and message of the narrative, and accept the Christ-ian worldview, of Christ as definitive perception and recognition of history
And the answer is, I am agnostic. I find something compelling and beautiful about the message and vision of the story, that with the conditions of my own life I can't shake. Christ haunts me. Yet the conditions of my own life make it difficult for me to accept that beyond the tragic truth of human history as a tortured body, there is hope.
If i were to believe in a God it would be Christ, and if i were not to believe in Christ, then I would not believe in a God. But the circumstances of my life leave me agnostic.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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And what have I repeatedly said about greco-roman biographies? That they incorporate narrative elements, that they attempt to convey the meaning of the lives of their subject. All the gospels not just John are written to convey the meaning of the historical person of Jesus as the true messiah, the Christ.
While the conveying of meaning might be style we oppose of in the writing of modern biographies, it was the norm from pre-modern world, who didn't have our dogmatic desire for literalism, and actual history, but desired the conveying of the meaning of it.
The Gospels are not written in the standard we would demand of modern biographies, but they are written in the style of biographies of the greco-roman world.
Claim whatever you like but as you told Rook in the other thread you insistently reference you cannot with 100% certainty make a case Jesus was a real historical person. You remember was Alexander a man? Was Julius Caesar? In fact your probabilities are unmeasurable regardless using the NT as basis when combined with the complete lack of outside substantiation. Are the Gospels a biography as you say with fiction and Sci-Fi added to jazz up the real Jesus or is it just a fictional story based or legends? How can there be basis in reality when much of the prophecies of this supposed messiah are based on fiction such as Daniel. Daniel is full of errors and misconceptions especially regarding history that indicates he had no clue who was king of Babylon and what king conquered it. Why then would your Jesus character have basis in reality if he subscribed to such Sci-Fi? I suppose he could have been misled, but that blows him out of the water as the Son of God wouldn't it.
Accepting the Gospels as a biography of a real historical Jesus would mean the Sci-Fi BS in these Gospels have basis in reality. If not then the stories in the NT are added fiction to make Jesus look like he is more than a simple desert prophet militant. The following fantastic adventures in fantasy land that contradict reality need explanation:
Virgins giving birth; Property destruction of 2,000 pigs; the 5,000 person picnic and the very similar 4,000 person low budget rerun; the fishing miracle told different ways; the centurion's servant healing told 2 different ways; resurrecting dead people; healing lepers without anti-biotics; angels appearing; healing cut-off ears; instant wine; mind-freak tricks like Criss Angel walking on water; teleportation from the desert after he is tempted by Satan; teleportation of an entire ship after the 5,000 person picnic; walking masses of resurrected dead persons upon his death on the cross; and various other Sci-Fi adventures.
Unrealistic behavior as follows:
Destroying property and living afterwords - killing the pigs; differing accounts of Jesus' actions after the 5000 person picnic; advocating unsanitary behavior; cursing inanimate objects such as a fig tree - and not knowing when figs were in season; attacking moneychangers in the Temple where 100s of guards were present including Roman right before the Passover; bringing in unclean persons to the Temple and getting away with it in front of the previously mentioned temple guards; changing his claim of when the Kingdom of God would occur; offers from Satan to give Jesus who is alleged to be God anything he wanted; Jesus' attitude about parents; parables that contradict one another - building sheds is pointless but investing money is wise; advocating warfare before diplomacy; make friends of the rich so they will help you when you fail; misrepresenting what is meant by cursed is he that hangs on a tree; Jesus says the kingdom of God is within you; Jesus advocates deception to get the hidden treasure on a piece of land; Pilate caring whether he kills low-life scrum Jewish rebels; racism and bigotry are advocated unless you are a persistent bitch; day workers should not show up until later in the day as they will get paid the same as those that get there at sunrise; don't go to weddings without the proper dress; and others.
Strange claims that don't agree with other accounts of history:
The death of John the Baptist; misrepresenting the Sanhedrin Council; misrepresenting what Jews could claim about being the messiah; Nazareth even existing at the time - maybe or not; same for Capernaum; Luke's census at the birth of Jesus; Matthew's baby killing by Herod;and more.
All of the above and far more including countless contradictory stories and multiple choice accounts of events suggest to me the Gospels are either fiction or they are legends from multiple sources. I can't tell which and I don't see where it matters from my understanding. Robin Hood stories originally had similar diverse accounts until they were written down years after they originated as well, ministrels embellished them at will.
A far better case can be made that Robin Hood and Arthur were real historic figures than Jesus though we can't know that for sure either. As I said earlier I have no clue if Jesus was real or not and that which is in the Gospels does little to convince me he was. There is far too much added fluff in these accounts to build him up as the savior and the Son of God to conclude he was as I just pointed out. There is of course the possibility he was real and all of the fluff was from oral legends and stories, but it matters little to me as either way the story of Jesus is not true per se because of 100s of issues and reasons. I studied theology and religion at a Jesuit university 25 years ago when I got my graduate degree and that which I learned led me to where I am now. I see where you say you are agnostic, fine with me. I have no argument with that. Believe what you will that Jesus lived or not, I care not. I don't see what your trying to accomplish here at all other than argue biography versus fiction and you say in other posts you see fiction in the accounts such as the virgin birth. You even say in a later post that if they were shown not to be of a real person than they are not a Greco-Roman biography. So either you can tell this or you can't, though again how can you be certain at all is something I don't get. You seem to make this as a claim of certainty though you have left the door open for the possibility Jesus wasn't real.
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"I guess it's time to ask if you live under high voltage power transmission lines which have been shown to cause stimulation of the fantasy centers of the brain due to electromagnetic waves?" - Me
"God is omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, - it says so right here on the label. If you have a mind capable of believing all three of these divine attributes simultaneously, I have a wonderful bargain for you. No checks please. Cash and in small bills." - Robert A Heinlein.
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It's really a non-sequitor. His position on Greco-Roman biography is so dated it makes his whole case as old as Bultmann's. He might as well have been making his case 60 years ago when such a position was acceptable. So many new studies have been done in genre criticism with the Gospels that it makes the claims he is making mute. Not even historical Jesus scholars accept his conclusions, those such as J.D. Crossan and the late Robert Funk. (Seriously, he claims that the Gospels are not pseudonymous?) He wonders why I don't respond to him. I don't respond because he isn't to be taken seriously. He's a twig in the mud pretending to be an oak in the forest.
Atheist Books, purchases on Amazon support the Rational Response Squad server, which houses Celebrity Atheists. Books by Rook Hawkins (Thomas Verenna)
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Claim whatever you like but as you told Rook in the other thread you insistently reference you cannot with 100% certainty make a case Jesus was a real historical person. You remember was Alexander a man? Was Julius Caesar? In fact your probabilities are unmeasurable regardless using the NT as basis when combined with the complete lack of outside substantiation[...]
So either you can tell this or you can't, though again how can you be certain at all is something I don't get. You seem to make this as a claim of certainty though you have left the door open for the possibility Jesus wasn't real.
Well, i have not made claims of 100%, and there is always a door open for the possibility that Jesus wasn't real. I make arguments of more probable, not 100% certainty. So my argument can be rendered "It is more probable that Jesus existed than not existed."
"How can there be basis in reality when much of the prophecies of this supposed messiah are based on fiction such as Daniel. "
Even our imagination has a basis in reality, in that reality is the palette in which we paint our imagination from. Your statement above is formed on the basis of reality, such as that some of messianic prophecies are based on a book in reality (the book of daniel). We can take a work of complete fiction, like a Dostoevsky novel, and reconstruct from there what probable events, persons, themes, experiences in the reality of the author led to character paintings. In fact literary critics do so all the time, like discovering the character of Elder Zosima in the Brothers of Karamazov is modeled on the character of St. Ambrosia of Optina.
Psychologist and Psychoanalyst and many scientist even reconstruct the source of our behaviors, and thought patterns, for humanity, and even for individuals.
We can take any part of the Gospels and do the same thing, like we would of the narrative about the fleeing from Herod, and murdering of innocent, and what in reality lead to this component of the narrative? An actual historical event? not likely. Paralleling the life of Jesus with narrative found in a real Jewish text about the life of Moses, to portray Jesus as liberator from oppression as Moses was? most likely.
Or the virgin birth: is this part of the narrative derived from the two Gospel writers interviewing Mary on Jesus' conception? not likely. A god revealing this to them in confidence? not likely? An erroneous reading of a messianic prophecy? likely. A conveying symbolically of Jesus extraordinariness? likely.
In fact your probabilities are unmeasurable regardless using the NT as basis
You've made a number of "measurable" probabilities using the NT and it's surrounding history as a basis, it may not be measurable in a sense that we actually have a quantifiable number like ,we're "87.65584% sure this event happened, but measurable in a sense of it being more likely or not. This alone proves your above sentence false.
Here's one such example: "Pilate caring whether he kills low-life scrum Jewish rebels"
This sentence can be written from what you implied as "it is unlikely that Pilate would have cared about low-life scrum Jewish rebels".
But there is historical case that Pilate did care (though care is perhaps not the correct word, but cauticious might be) about non-violent Jewish rebels. Josephus writes of such an event in Antiquities of the Jews, of number of Jewish rebels who protested the image of the governor, and the eagle of Jupiter being placed in Jerusalem. When Pilate and his soldiers surrounded them and threatened them with death, the protestors replied that they where "willing to die rather than see the laws of the torah violated". And Josephus writes that Pilate was deeply affected by the non-violent protestors resolution, and ordered his men to carry the images back to Cesarea.
We see this pattern of psychology revealed numerous times in history when dealing with figures of non-violent resistance, in governments who understood such figures as nuisances and threats to their dominion, such as Rev. King, and Gandhi. If such figures were proponents of violent resistance they could have easily been killed by government sanction, but being that they were not, made such actions much more difficult to do and justify.
Is it historically probable that Pilate would have been reluctant to kill Jesus? The psychology of Pilate revealed in the Josephus account reveals that there's a good chance that he may just have been. Does Pilates reluctance to kill Jesus have a basis in reality? Yes it does.
But the heart of the Gospels that lead to the conclusion of a historical person more so than anything else, is the parables, and the teachings themselves. What is the most probable source in reality of them? Who is the imaginer of them? Who told them, particularly those that are multiply attested to? Who is the one that said that Jews should resist the Roman Angaria law, by walking another mile? Who told them, to resist the suing of the poor for almost their last possession--their tunic, by going naked by giving up their cloak as well? Who is extending the love of one's neighbor to include ones enemy as well? Who is putting the spin on Hillel's not doing bad, into doing good? etc...etc....? Who tolds those subversive parables? Perhaps you'd like to give us the most probable explanation of this?
A far better case can be made that Robin Hood and Arthur were real historic figures than Jesus.
I doubt a better case can be made that Robin Hood was a historical person than Jesus, in fact a better case can't be made for an Gautama Buddha who is considered an actual historical person, but has far less evidence going for him than Jesus.
....combined with the complete lack of outside substantiation.
Well, there is a decent amount of outside substantiation that lends a great deal to the probability that Jesus was a historical person, I just don't tend to use it much, since I enjoy making the case with the Gospels more. Here are two examples:
Tacitus: "Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius 14-37 at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus"
Mara Bar-Serapion writing around 73 A.D: "What advantage did the Jews gain from executing their wise king? [...]Nor did the wise king die for good; he lived on in the teaching which he had given."
Though Bar-Serapion doesn't say the name of this wise king is Jesus, I don't know of any other individual who would fit the description of a wise Jewish king who was executed and known for his teaching, other than Jesus, do you? Apparently Mara Bar-Serapion thought the reference would be known well enough that he felt that he didn't need to explicitly provide the name.
The individuals who argue that since the name "Jesus" is not explicitly given here, Bar-Serapion cannot be considered as an outside substantiation of Jesus existence are silly. You tell me what's more explicit, if I say president George Bush, or the 43rd US president? A wise supposed jewish king known for his teachings executed by the jews, or Jesus a common name?
Unless someone wants to present an individual that would better fit the description than Jesus, there is no argument. Probability favors that Bar-Serapion was speaking of Jesus than not.
Though not really related to the rest of the thread, but since you choose to misrepresent some of the parables, I've decided to correct some of your assumptions about them:
When did Jesus advocate investing money?
I'm guessing you're referring to the parable in Luke 19 (that also appears in Matthew), and claiming that the King is representative of Jesus himself? When in fact Jesus is quite clear, particularly in Luke that he is not referring to himself, as he starts the parable off with a clear reference to a historical event, about a delegation of Jews who traveled to Rome to oppose Herod Archaleus receiving the title of king.
When did Jesus say that one should make friends of those with money? Surely not the parables of Shrewd Manager? Where he accuses the steward of being a child of the world, rather than a child of the light?
And why would the king who gave a wedding feast and kicked out the man who was improperly dressed be Jesus? When in the Matthew narrative that mentions this part, has Jesus being proclaimed as "an individual who does not regard a person's status", right after he tells this parable?
Most of your other interpretation are twisted, and I doubt with any real reflection you would agree with the meaning of some of them as: "jesus advocated warfare before diplomacy", "day workers should not show up until later in the day " or "deception"? If this is the meaning you derive from these parables I suggest you go back to high school, and take a reading comprehension class. If anyone is misrepresenting what these parables mean, it's you.
changing his claim of when the Kingdom of God would occur;
The kingdom of God is a realized and yet to be realized eschatology, the word used for "within" is also the word used for "among". It's a double meaning term, that the Gospel of Thomas clarifies in the "kingdom of God is within you and it is among you." And the word "kingdom" (basileia) is not as you take it to mean as territory, but the word means dominion, or reign, or sovereignty. The verse means that God reign is within our hearts, and present among us. And as Paul correctly interprets the kingdom of God is not a matter of food and drink, but of righteous, peace, and joy. That God's liberation is not material liberation, but a spiritual one, a theme that gospels continually go over.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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(Seriously, he claims that the Gospels are not pseudonymous?) He wonders why I don't respond to him. I don't respond because he isn't to be taken seriously.
Funny, Rook, maybe you should read what i wrote again in this post and in the other post. If your reading ability fails you again, let's clarify what I said once more with a direct quote from the thread you won't respond to:
"You criticized the Gospels being Greco-Biographies, for being pseudonymous, and for the writers putting words into the mouth of Jesus at will. What you fail to mention (perhaps as the result of confirmation, perhaps not) that these are not foreign elements of Greco-Biographies as well. “The Life of Homer” and “The Life of Pinder” are just a few examples of Greco-Roman biographies written pseudonymously. And Historians of the ancient world such as Plutrach and Herodutus “freely invented speeches for their historical subjects (wikipedia).”
What did I say here Rook? Did I imply the gospels were not written pseudonymously or that they were? Would you like to correct yourself and apologize for mischaracterizing my view here?
And while you are at it, will you admit that your claim that Jesus is Odysseus is bogus? Or would you still like to give credibility to this view?
He's a twig in the mud pretending to be an oak in the forest.
Well, I think a number of intelligent individuals on this forum know who is really masquerading here my friend, and who tries to peddle creationist like logic.
His position on Greco-Roman biography is so dated it makes his whole case as old as Bultmann's. He might as well have been making his case 60 years ago when such a position was acceptable. So many new studies have been done in genre criticism with the Gospels that it makes the claims he is making mute. Not even historical Jesus scholars accept his conclusions, those such as J.D. Crossan and the late Robert Funk.
Excuse me if I take your representation of Crossan with a grain of salt.
You're known for mischaracterizing the views of others, as you did here with me, and with the debunked claim of yours that: Mark “used narrative to enforce the idea that Jesus is Odysseus”, claiming that every critical scholar admits to this (not just some, not even most but "every) . I've asked you a number of times in this thread, if you agree now, after I've refuted this claim, that this is bogus, but you haven't responded to this question either. Hum..I wonder why?
But regardless I'm not a big fan from arguments from authority, I mean don't you find it hypocritical to make such argument beings that you're a mythicist and disagree with the historical consensus?
I've went over in length why the gospels are biographies written in the greco-roman world in that thread that I've continually linked here, and if your refutation for this is nothing but an argument from authority, let others decide who is capable of making a real argument and who is not.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!
To Rook,
I dug myself into a hole?
Perhaps you'd like to reveal where that hole is? Unlike you I don't take issue with being wrong. I can openly admit it when I am. So maybe you'd like to show me where on this thread that I dug myself into a hole?
Or is this, as well as the avatar a cheap way of attempting to discredit me, when you have no argument?
I don't think anyone other than a minute few fanboys will get why you gave me a "asshat" avatar, but to me it makes more a mockery out of you and this site than me. It's childish rook, and reveals a level of immaturity, when I expected better from you.
But oh well, do what you will, I'm going to say my piece regardless. If someone puts me in a hole, meaning that they show that I'm wrong somewhere, I'd be pretty grateful for it, not ashamed of it. But you surely haven't said anything in this thread that's done so, but I'm sure some delusion of grandeur makes you think otherwise.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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So my argument can be rendered "It is more probable that Jesus existed than not existed."
Why? Just because there is writing in a book that has the name Jesus? Show me your computation statistically with all variables substantiating there is greater than a 50% probability.
Even our imagination has a basis in reality, in that reality is palette in which we paint our imagination from. Your statement above is formed on the basis of reality, such as that some of messianic prophecies are based on a book in reality (the book of daniel). We can take a work of complete fiction, like Dostoevsky novel, and reconstruct from there what probable events, persons, themes, experiences in the reality of the author led to character paintings. In fact literary critics do so all the time, like discovering the character of Elder Zosima in the Brothers of Karamazov is modeled on the character of St. Ambrosia of Optina.
You can see from an author's writing his exposure to certain ideas, concepts, technology, and major events, but you are guessing at what experiences he actually experienced. He may in fact have mixed multiple real sources that were completely unknown and persons years later look back and conclude incorrectly it was from another person when it wasn't.
Psychologist and Psychoanalyst and many scientist even reconstruct the source of our behaviors, and thought patterns, for humanity, and even for individuals.
We can take any part of the Gospels and do the same thing, like we would of the narrative about the fleeing from Herod, and murdering of innocent, and what in reality lead to this component of the narrative? An actual historical event? not likely. Paralleling the life of Jesus with narrative found in a real Jewish text about the life of Moses, to portray Jesus as liberator from oppression as Moses was? most likely.
I do see the similarities to Moses which is another support for fiction not a real person.
In fact your probabilities are unmeasurable regardless using the NT as basis
You've made a number of "measurable" probabilities using the NT and it's surrounding history as a basis, it may not measurable in a sense that we actually have a quantifiable number like we're "87.65584% sure this event happened, but measurable in a sense of it being more likely or not. This alone proves your above sentence false.
Again, please get your statistics book out of the dusty corner that you apparently keep it and write a formula detailing your measurable basis of probability.
Here's one such example: "Pilate caring whether he kills low-life scum Jewish rebels"
This sentence can be written from what you implied as "it is unlikely that Pilate would have cared about low-life scrum Jewish rebels".
But there is historical case that Pilate did care (though care is perhaps not the correct word, but cauticious might be) about non-violent Jewish rebels. Josephus writes of such an event in Antiquities of the Jews, of number of Jewish rebels who protested the image of the governor, and the eagle of Jupiter being placed in Jerusalem. When Pilate and his soldiers surrounded them and threatened them with death, the protestors replied that they where "willing to die rather than see the laws of the torah violated". And Josephus writes that Pilate was deeply affected by the non-violent protestors resolution, and ordered his men to carry the images back to Cesarea.
Nice try. Then we have the case where the same Pilate kills those seeking the vessels of Moses. This action caused Pilate to be recalled. Pilate showed shrewdness in the example you gave where the Jews all exposed their necks to be killed. He couldn't easily have explained this action away, though he did use force at other times where he did get away with it.
Is it historically probable that Pilate would have been reluctant to kill Jesus? The psychology of Pilate revealed in the Josephus account reveals that there's a good chance that he may just have been. Does Pilates reluctance to kill Jesus have a basis in reality? Yes it does.
Does it? Why? Pilate is shown as shrewd and intelligent. The Jews all wanted Jesus dead, so he would jump on that to amend for his previous encounters to show them he could be counted on.
Quote:....combined with the complete lack of outside substantiation.Well, there is a decent amount of outside substantiation that lends a great deal to the probability that Jesus was a historical person, I just don't tend to use it much, since I enjoy making the case with the Gospels more. Here are two examples:
Tacitus: "Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius 14-37 at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus"
Nope. He would have heard about Christians by about 115 CE when he wrote as there were indeed Christ believers by then.
Mara Bar-Serapion writing around 73 A.D: "What advantage did the Jews gain from executing their wise king? [...]Nor did the wise king die for good; he lived on in the teaching which he had given."
Though Bar-Serapion doesn't say the name of this wise king is Jesus, I don't know of any other individual who would fit the description of a wise Jewish king who was executed and known for his teaching, other than Jesus, do you? Apparently Mara Bar-Serapion that the reference would be known well enough that he felt that he didn't need to explicitly provide the name.
The individuals who argue that since the name "Jesus" is not explicitly given here, Bar-Serapion cannot be considered as an outside substantiation of Jesus existence are silly. You tell me what's more explicit, if I say president George Bush, or the 43rd US president? A wise supposed jewish king known for his teachings executed by the jews, or Jesus a common name?
Unless someone wants to present an individual that would better fit the description than Jesus, there is no argument. Probability favors that Bar-Serapion was speaking of Jesus than not.
When was Jesus a Jewish King? The Jews in fact did not execute anyone in the early first century, the Romans did. If the Jews had in fact executed Jesus he would have been stoned not crucified.
Though not really related to the rest of the thread, but since you choose to misrepresent some of the parables, I've decided to correct some of your assumptions about them:
When did Jesus advocate investing money?
I'm guessing you're referring to the parable in Luke 19 (that also appears in Matthew), and claiming that the King is representative of Jesus himself? When in fact Jesus is quite clear, particularly in Luke that he is not referring to himself, as he starts the parable off with a clear reference to a historical event, about a delegation of Jews who traveled to Rome to oppose Herod Archaleus receiving the title of king.
Nope. See what guessing does. I actually listed this under unrealistic behavior based on Matthew 25 where the servant failed to invest and Jesus clearly says the Kingdom of Heaven is as a man traveling into a far country....etc. In the end the servant is tossed out into outer darkness. Is this not in fact Jesus speaking that if you don't use your abilities talents etc to be faithful to God that he (God) will take what you have and damn you? In contrast is Luke 12 and the rich fool. Here Jesus was speaking of greed with this example and the man loses all when he dies and he had plans for expansion. No where did I claim Jesus was the lord or king, you did.
When did Jesus say that one should make friends of those with money? Surely not the parables of Shrewd Manager? Where he accuses the steward of being a child of the world, rather than a child of the light?
In fact this was Luke 16, the parable of the dishonest steward in verse 9, calling him shrewd is justifying dishonesty. He does say you can't serve money and God but in the end.
And why would the king who gave a wedding feast and kicked out the man who was improperly dressed be Jesus? When in the Matthew narrative that mentions this part, has Jesus being proclaimed as "an individual who does not regard a person's status", right after he tells this parable?
Again when did I say he was Jesus, you did here, I did not. All I said was it was unrealistic behavior. Again this king is an allegory to God damning the man. The problem is the man is speechless, the king jumps to a conclusion the man is insulting him when in fact he could be in shock a king was speaking to him at all. He could have been a foreigner or deaf as well. It's a badly written parable.
Most of your other interpretation are twisted, and I doubt with any real reflection you would agree with the meaning of some of them as: "jesus advocated warfare before diplomacy",
Again, it's badly written in Luke 14:31-32 where the king first decides if he can win a war before he sends out peace envoys. His point being to forsake all and follow him.
"day workers should not show up until later in the day " or "deception"? If this is the meaning you derive from these parables I suggest you go back to high school, and take a reading comprehension class. If anyone is misrepresenting what these parables mean, it's you.
In this case he speaks in Matthew 20 all who work get a penny for working even those who show up late. I listed this as unrealistic behavior as once someone does this trick the new market price is established as late afternoon work for a penny. The intent was everyone will get saved even those who do so last. I call it unrealistic.
Deception is clearly advocated in the hidden treasure parable whether you understand it or not. My concern is this behavior is prevalent in our society while honesty is not. In Matthew 13:44 he says the kingdom of heaven is like a treasure a man finds in a field he hides the treasure and buys the land. No mention is made that the owner of the land is informed a treasure is upon it. I say this is deception. It again is really a badly written parable.
Quote:changing his claim of when the Kingdom of God would occur;The kingdom of God is a realized and yet to be realized eschatology, the word used for "within" is also the word used for "among". It's a double meaning term, that the Gospel of Thomas clarifies in the "kingdom of God is within you and it is among you." And the word "kingdom" (basileia) is not as you take it to mean as territory, but the word means dominion, or reign, or sovereignty. The verse means that God reign is within our hearts, and present among us. And as Paul correctly interprets the kingdom of God is not a matter of food and drink, but of righteous, peace, and joy. That God's liberation is not material liberation, but a spiritual one, a theme that gospels continually go over.
So you say. However, many times the kingdom of God was at hand, meaning right now; then it became some of you standing here will not taste death before it comes; and then this generation shall not pass away before the kingdom of God comes. Jesus was changing the goalposts. I'm aware of Thomas and the Kingdom of God is within as well as in the Gospels where he means you can worship God anywhere.
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"God is omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent, - it says so right here on the label. If you have a mind capable of believing all three of these divine attributes simultaneously, I have a wonderful bargain for you. No checks please. Cash and in small bills." - Robert A Heinlein.
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Theist say the buybull was historical when it supports their argument, and when the buybull contradicts itself theist say "don't take it literally".
Theist, stop believing your own lies... if that's possible.
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Using the BuyBull to prove Jesus exists is like using Gone With the Wind to prove Scarlet O'Hara exists.
Good one. We know and can prove that the Civil War happened so therefor any Southern Bell named Scarlet could have shot lazer beems out of her eyes or could make her hairs turn into spitting cobras.
That's why I hate arguing the "history" of claimed characters of any holy book of any religion in history.
In human history, is a person, or group of people who don't like the current way things are done by popular society, they split and use elements of the past, including myth, lies and trickery, to sell their newer product. Much like how political add campains by both parties only seek to sell without caring about the pragmatic issues of problem solving.
So even IF, which is in dispute, a man named Jesus(very common name back then btw) it wouldn't make his magic plausable.
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Christos wrote:
Hey Carl Sagan, what part of "I am not a Christian," do you not understand? I'm not trying to prove the Jesus of the gospels. All I am saying is that there was a historical Jesus who was wrapped in miracles and Jewish history in the gospels.
So you wish to establish a purely human Jesus.
What? Why do you say that? Let's leave this clear:
Mohammad existed. Arab chieftain, OK? If we study him historically, does it mean we have to fully disregard the Koran, instead of investigating it (plus every other available source)? Does it mean that if we accept Mohammad as an historical figure, we forcefully have to admit he kicked the Moon?
Other myths: book, The Iliad. Everyone believes it's a myth until a guy called Schliemann digs a bit and finds the ruins of Troy. Of a dozen Troys. The city is there, physically, buried under the ground. The epic tale is an epic tale. Does it mean that if we try to find a broken door or a painted horse, we are accepting that Apollo, Zeus and Aphrodite were scampering around the battlefiend?
Please.
That’s fine, yet you do realise this refutes Christianity.
Depends of the Christian. I am an agnostic, and I have Christian friends who would not agree with you. Then again, my Christian friends aren't exactly the average fundie.
You not a Christian so I don’t think this will concern you, but no Christian should attempt to prove a Jesus other than the Jesus described in the gospels.
Pardón, but again, I know a few Christians who wouldn't agree with you. In fact, I find it funny for an atheist to tell Christians what they should try to prove or disprove. Some people (specially the learned ones) follow a belief because they agree with its overall philosophy. And some Christians are smart enough as to NOT take the gospels literally. But then again, as I said before, my few Christian friends aren't average.
In any case, my two cents:
What about Josephus' second mention of Jesus? The one where he mentions "Jacob, brother of Jesus, who was called the Christ?" I am not trying to provoke or anything, I am just asking. I know Origen mentioned this paragraph (unlike the first one). I wonder what we would find if we ever got hold of a copy of the Antiquitates Judaicae before it was translated.
Second. Correct me if I'm wrong, but the four gospels differ (more or less) from one another, except in two points: Jesus fires the merchants from the temple and gets killed.
Maybe Jesus didn't exist, I don't know. But I find the "revolutionary who got killed" explanation as the most reliable of the explanations available out there. I am not saying it is completely proven or foolproof. I am just saying that, according to Öccam's Razor, I haven't been given a better explanation.
Up to which point was the historical Jesus similar to the Jesus of the Gospels? Now that's a totally different topic. I don't believe in ressurrection, for starters. But I think the root of the mythical Jesus was a human being. Just as I know that combustion of organic matter is the root for the myth of the Will-O-the-Wisp. That doesn't mean I believe in Will-O-the-Wisps, it's just that I'm investigating where the myth comes from, and whether its root is based (albeit loosely) in real life, or a fraud.
For example. those "fairy photographs" taken in England were a myth whose root was fraud. The Will-O'the-Wisp was a myth whose root was not a fraud, but a mix of human mistakes, fear and ignorance.
On the point of the "Jesus Christ" myth, I think that so far, with the information we have now available, the most probable root was a Jewish preacher. I don't say there can't be another explanation. I just say that, so far, I haven't found anyone better.
I had a look at Acharya's book "The greatest history ever sold". She lost me when she used Helena Blavatsky's works and books like "The lost continent of Mu" as reliable sources.
Now, as a curious person, I really, really wish we found an original of Josephus' Antiquitates Judaicae. I really, really am intrigued to know about what he really wrote. And considering most of the world counts the years based on a possibly mistaken date of birth of Jesus, I think it'd be interesting to try to search for such information. Just to know a bit more about human History and that
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Topher wrote:Christos wrote:
Hey Carl Sagan, what part of "I am not a Christian," do you not understand? I'm not trying to prove the Jesus of the gospels. All I am saying is that there was a historical Jesus who was wrapped in miracles and Jewish history in the gospels.
So you wish to establish a purely human Jesus.What? Why do you say that? Let's leave this clear:
Mohammad existed. Arab chieftain, OK? If we study him historically, does it mean we have to fully disregard the Koran, instead of investigating it (plus every other available source)? Does it mean that if we accept Mohammad as an historical figure, we forcefully have to admit he kicked the Moon?
Other myths: book, The Iliad. Everyone believes it's a myth until a guy called Schliemann digs a bit and finds the ruins of Troy. Of a dozen Troys. The city is there, physically, buried under the ground. The epic tale is an epic tale. Does it mean that if we try to find a broken door or a painted horse, we are accepting that Apollo, Zeus and Aphrodite were scampering around the battlefiend?
Please.
Topher wrote:That’s fine, yet you do realise this refutes Christianity.Depends of the Christian. I am an agnostic, and I have Christian friends who would not agree with you. Then again, my Christian friends aren't exactly the average fundie.
Topher wrote:You not a Christian so I don’t think this will concern you, but no Christian should attempt to prove a Jesus other than the Jesus described in the gospels.
Pardón, but again, I know a few Christians who wouldn't agree with you. In fact, I find it funny for an atheist to tell Christians what they should try to prove or disprove. Some people (specially the learned ones) follow a belief because they agree with its overall philosophy. And some Christians are smart enough as to NOT take the gospels literally. But then again, as I said before, my few Christian friends aren't average.In any case, my two cents:
What about Josephus' second mention of Jesus? The one where he mentions "Jacob, brother of Jesus, who was called the Christ?" I am not trying to provoke or anything, I am just asking. I know Origen mentioned this paragraph (unlike the first one). I wonder what we would find if we ever got hold of a copy of the Antiquitates Judaicae before it was translated.
Second. Correct me if I'm wrong, but the four gospels differ (more or less) from one another, except in two points: Jesus fires the merchants from the temple and gets killed.
Maybe Jesus didn't exist, I don't know. But I find the "revolutionary who got killed" explanation as the most reliable of the explanations available out there. I am not saying it is completely proven or foolproof. I am just saying that, according to Öccam's Razor, I haven't been given a better explanation.
Up to which point was the historical Jesus similar to the Jesus of the Gospels? Now that's a totally different topic. I don't believe in ressurrection, for starters. But I think the root of the mythical Jesus was a human being. Just as I know that combustion of organic matter is the root for the myth of the Will-O-the-Wisp. That doesn't mean I believe in Will-O-the-Wisps, it's just that I'm investigating where the myth comes from, and whether its root is based (albeit loosely) in real life, or a fraud.
For example. those "fairy photographs" taken in England were a myth whose root was fraud. The Will-O'the-Wisp was a myth whose root was not a fraud, but a mix of human mistakes, fear and ignorance.
On the point of the "Jesus Christ" myth, I think that so far, with the information we have now available, the most probable root was a Jewish preacher. I don't say there can't be another explanation. I just say that, so far, I haven't found anyone better.
I had a look at Acharya's book "The greatest history ever sold". She lost me when she used Helena Blavatsky's works and books like "The lost continent of Mu" as reliable sources.
Now, as a curious person, I really, really wish we found an original of Josephus' Antiquitates Judaicae. I really, really am intrigued to know about what he really wrote. And considering most of the world counts the years based on a possibly mistaken date of birth of Jesus, I think it'd be interesting to try to search for such information. Just to know a bit more about human History and that
Thanks for your reply.
Yes, some people who call themselves Christian just happen to follow the over all philosophy (I'm even aware of someone who calls themselves an 'atheist Christian'), but I am not talking this rare breed of Christian. I am talking about mainstream Christianity, i.e. the 'official' (for lack of a better word) Christian doctrine that the core story of the gospels (give or take some minor issues) is a historical, factual event. Most Christians believe that Jesus existed, was the son of god, performed miracles, was physically resurrected, and many believe he was born of a virgin. This is true even for those who do not believe in Biblical inerrancy.
My point is simple: if you affirm that the gospels are historical documents, and that Jesus was a miracle-working god-man, then just proving the existence of a mere man is a refutation to Christianity. That should be obvious. If you say Jesus is X, but your 'proof' only shows that he is Y, then you've actually refuted yourself. And yet many Christians are happy to cite to supposed references of Jesus, references that fail to mention his god-miracle-status, and not see this as a problem. It's quite humorous to be honest.
All this is simply academic anyway since it is impossible to prove or disprove Jesus to begin with. One can only make a case for what is most likely, based on the evidence. As Robert Price says, the bottom line is we really just don't know, and if we are honest with ourselves and objectively apply the historical method to Jesus, we can only arrive at 'agnosticism' regarding his existence, thus the rational position is to abstain from belief in his existence.
Ahistoricity is certainly not proven, but there is enough of a case there for it to be taken seriously. There is certainly not a open-and-shut case against ahistoricity as many historians would believe.
I'd suggest you look at Richard Carrier's work on this topic. I believe he is currently writing a book on it.
Here is his review of Doherty's book: http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/jesuspuzzle.html
And here is a podcast episode How not to argue for the mythicist position: http://media.libsyn.com/media/infidelguy/01_31_2007_Carrier-Jesus_Myth.mp3
I'd start with them.
You may also want to look into Robert Price.
Jesus: The Failed Hypothesis: http://libsyn.com/media/pointofinquiry/POI_2007_03_09_Robert_Price.mp3Hope that helps.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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Yes, some people who call themselves Christian just happen to follow the over all philosophy (I'm even aware of someone who calls themselves an 'atheist Christian'), but I am not talking this rare breed of Christian. I am talking about mainstream Christianity, i.e. the 'official' (for lack of a better word) Christian doctrine that the core story of the gospels (give or take some minor issues) is a historical, factual event. Most Christians believe that Jesus existed, was the son of god, performed miracles, was physically resurrected, and many believe he was born of a virgin. This is true even for those who do not believe in Biblical inerrancy.
My point is simple: if you affirm that the gospels are historical documents, and that Jesus was a miracle-working god-man, then just proving the existence of a mere man is a refutation to Christianity. That should be obvious. If you say Jesus is X, but your 'proof' only shows that he is Y, then you've actually refuted yourself. And yet many Christians are happy to cite to supposed references of Jesus, references that fail to mention his god-miracle-status, and not see this as a problem. It's quite humorous to be honest.
Well, I'm one of those mainstream theist who does not believe in Biblical inerrancy, but yet believe Jesus was (is) the son of God, and was literally resurrected. Yet I can understand the distinction between the Jesus history can validate, and the Jesus of the faith tradition, which history can not.
The dilemma topher, is that it is not in the means of history to prove Jesus is the Son of God, performed miracles, or did any such supernatural things. History can claim that Jesus was a historical man, but it cannot make claims that he was more than a man as well.
To put it into perspective, let's take the resurrection: How would the historical method validate a supernatural resurrection? if every person in ancient antiquity saw the event, or everyone the world over, and then went ahead and wrote about it, providing us millions of eye witness accounts, can history than claim that a supernatural resurrection happened?
The answer, for those who have even a passing familiarity with the historical method, is that no it can't.
Even if I were to be a witness of the resurrected Jesus myself, I still would not be able to validate it as historical event. I could have been one like Thomas, and felt Jesus' wounded hands, and etc., and I may in fact believe whole heartedly that I was witness to the resurrected christ, but it is not within the capability and means of history to validate this event. If you can figure out a means for which history can do so you tell me?
At best, the historical method can validate (by validate i mean make more probable) the perception of an event, it can make claims such as that I probably did perceive a resurrected Jesus, but this might just have been a delusion, like a ghost sighting.
All this is simply academic anyway since it is impossible to prove or disprove Jesus to begin with. One can only make a case for what is most likely, based on the evidence.
Well my friend, history like other sciences, doesn't "prove" anything, all the scientific method can do is make cases for what is most likely.
As Robert Price says, the bottom line is we really just don't know, and if we are honest with ourselves and objectively apply the historical method to Jesus, we can only arrive at 'agnosticism' regarding his existence, thus the rational position is to abstain from belief in his existence. AHistoricity is certainly not proven, but there is enough of a case there for it to be taken seriously. There is certainly not a open-and-shut case against ahistoricity as many historians would believe.
Uhm we don't know? in what sense do we not know? It's more probable that Jesus existed than not existed, or in other words it's more likely that there was a historical Jesus, a jewish rabbi for whom the gospels are based on, than not. Is it a open-and-shut case? Uhm probably not, is there enough juice in the ahistorical position for it to be taken seriously? No not at all, in fact its taken as seriously by historians, as creationism is taken by scientist. Of course, when a person so in grained by what's said among his peers, he might not so readily see this.
Over time, you see pattern emerge among forums like this. Jesus mythicist begin to die down, vocal mythicist disappear all together, for lack of any decent argument, and what's left is a few stragglers. You'd be hard pressed to find a decent mythicist these days. And eventually they'll be just as miniscule as flat-earthers.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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Yet I can understand the distinction between the Jesus history can validate, and the Jesus of the faith tradition, which history can not.
Isn't the fact that the Jesus that history may reveal not being the same as the Jesus of your religion--the Jesus that requires faith--revealing? And I'm not talking about history showing us a 'supernatural' Jesus, only that the purported events even took place.
The dilemma topher, is that it is not in the means of history to prove Jesus is the Son of God, performed miracles, or did any such supernatural things. History can claim that Jesus was a historical man, but it cannot make claims that he was more than a man as well.
This isn't a dilemma. The issue is quite simple: Christianity and Christians make historical claims, and as such they must meet the burden of the historical/critical method. If it is the case that a god-man existed and done all the things that you say he done, they we should have copious amounts of historical information.
To put it into perspective, let's take the resurrection: How would the historical method validate a supernatural resurrection? if every person in ancient antiquity saw the event, or everyone the world over, and then went ahead and wrote about it, providing us millions of eye witness accounts, can history than claim that a supernatural resurrection happened?
It can't prove it, which means you have no business claiming it is a historical event to begin with! That being said, the historical and scientific methods can tell us whether they is any reason to believe it.
is there enough juice in the ahistorical position for it to be taken seriously? No not at all, in fact its taken as seriously by historians, as creationism is taken by scientist.
And as I said this is most likely due to the amount of poor scholarship out there. There is some decent scholarship being produced. One problem is that current New Testament scholarship is filled with practices that you don't find elsewhere in other areas of history. There is certainly enough of a basis for it to be taken more seriously. We need to distinguish between the bad from the good scholarship.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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Uhm we don't know? in what sense do we not know? It's more probable that Jesus existed than not existed, or in other words it's more likely that there was a historical Jesus, a jewish rabbi for whom the gospels are based on, than not.
Babbling about subjective notions of probability isn't particularly impressive or even sensible. So, you believe, so it's probable. Yawn.
How historically acceptable is it to you that the existence of a personage is based on unprovenanced texts, from unknown times, written for purposes not indicative of historically sound sources? The gospel sources are by their nature secondary sources. We know that Paul, who believed in some way that Jesus existed, didn't need a real live Jesus for his belief. He trusted his revelation, Gal 1:11-12, and his proselytes trusted him. You see people in ancient times believed what trusted people said. (For instance, they believed that Eve was created from Adam's rib -- it says so in the scripture. Lucian of Samosata's antagonist, Peregrinus, was believed by his christians because they trusted him. Such beliefs are not material for history.)
Neither Paul nor his proselytes needed a real live historical Jesus. But that is where christianity started. The gospels didn't come along for several generations. The first gospel, Mark, was apparently written in Rome, due to its use of Latin terms and idioms as well as a Roman predisposition, explanations for Romans. That doesn't augur for a first hand source, but a source of collected traditions.
Trying to apply probabilities to unfathomed traditions is a species of necromancy. Traditions may be based on actual figures, but there is no necessity and it is exceptionally hard to separate what may be real from the plausible but not real. When Tertullian argues against Ebion, he assumes that Ebion existed, as does Hippolytus and Epiphanius, but we know better. Ebion the eponymous founder of the Ebionite christian movement is a figure who was whisped into existence through error: it was assumed that the name "Ebionite" followed the pattern of group based on founder, but "Ebionite" comes from the Hebrew word meaning "poor". You can see how Pilate's wife gets reified and named and eventually turned into a saint. Tradition works that way. You simply have little hope of extracting history from it. Yet here you are rabbiting on about probability.
We live in a society which is still strongly biased towards christian assumptions. Many historians are christians. And those that aren't are liable to the influence of a strongly christian society. It is not strange that historians, when they dabble in religious studies, will withhold their usual critical methodologies.
Is it a open-and-shut case? Uhm probably not, is there enough juice in the ahistorical position for it to be taken seriously? No not at all, in fact its taken as seriously by historians, as creationism is taken by scientist.
This is ultimately self-defeating logic. The onus is always on those who present a substantive position to demonstrate it. It doesn't matter if no opposing case exists. Such cases are means for disregarding one's scholarly responsibilities and merely attacking the opposing thesis. This sublimates the actual necessity of making the substantive case. In other words it is just a cheap trick to avoid one's responsibilities.
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Hi Christos,
I recall Robert Price and David Marshall having a conversation on the Infidel Guy Show about the Gospel of Thomas, and I recall them saying that all of the sayings within it are considered to be uncertain in orgin, save two which have been considered to have been "probably spoken" by Jesus.
As for the gospel of Q, I think we need to note that although most scholars (to my knowledge at least) think it existed, but there is a large minority who argue against it. Secondly, how can we be sure what Q said? How do we know that it contained the sayings of Jesus and not just some sayings of the cynics? I'd like some more information on this, and if you could provide it I would be grateful. I simply don't know enough to make a judgement about Q.
Last but not least, a common source for these sayings would not necessarily imply that the source was Jesus. Maybe the common source was the first gospel writer who authored Q and an early version of Mark.
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Isn't the fact that the Jesus that history may reveal not being the same as the Jesus of your religion--the Jesus that requires faith--revealing? And I'm not talking about history showing us a 'supernatural' Jesus, only that the purported events even took place.
Well, I for one believe the Jesus of history to be the Jesus of my religion, but the question here is what exactly does that mean for the Jesus of history to be the Jesus of my religion? First we would have to have an understanding of what the meaning of that religion is, and then we have decided if Jesus is representative of that meaning.
Is the meaning of the Gospels a belief that Jesus literally walked on water, and can be historically validated? Is the meaning of the tale of three little pigs, that wolves talk? What are the question the gospel attempts to answer? What is the worldview it is trying to convey?
The dilemma for many but not all unbelievers is they fail to see this point, there's obsession with the age of science, and there's life of abundance and privilege, leave them foreign to the dilemma of the human condition, where the questions are rarely about history or science, but a way of making sense of a troubling world. Tragedy deals with it questions, that are not scientific inquiry but meaning inquiries, a way to inquire about life to give it some sort of poetic resonance, to give meaning to the meaningless for a shred of hope.
The cross has a context in history. how many unbelievers know what that context is? Why would those in the first century cling to a belief in Christ's overcoming of it? And why has this become an emblem for suffering people the world over?
For me, the real and troubling questions of my life, are the ones the writers and the community of the gospels face, the cross is not just a symbol of misery at one point in history two thousand years ago, but ever present. And the Christ who overcame it, is that ever present hope for lives were no hope is present.
I doubt many readers here will get this point, because there is something about this that our average atheist just doesn't see. An atheist arguing to me about history doesn't get too far, but an atheist who argues in opposition to the meaning does a lot more, but sadly very few get it.
In fact theist reflections on their religion have created far more doubts for me, than anything I've ever heard from a disbeliever. Dostoevsky has placed me on the edge of disbelief; Richard Dawkins is a joke.
This isn't a dilemma. The issue is quite simple: Christianity and Christians make historical claims, and as such they must meet the burden of the historical/critical method. If it is the case that a god-man existed and done all the things that you say he done, they we should have copious amounts of historical information.
Claiming an event happened is not in itself a historical claim. I myself can be a witness to something, that has no preserved evidence or not enough afterwords for historical validation. Think of it like being accused of a crime, for which you have an alibi for, that you were somewhere else at the time of the crime, but yet have no means to verify this with evidence, for others. Just because you don't have evidence or sufficient enough evidence to prove this, doesn't mean that you weren't somewhere else.
But let's look into this claim of their being copious amounts of historical information if Jesus did all things he said he done? Is this necessarily true? Would we expect much more than what we have now if this was true? Was Jesus surrounding himself with people that would create these copious amount of evidence? Perhaps you'd like to make a case for what you think we would have if all the gospels claims actually did happened (even though I don't even believe all the gospels claims happened), and how this would compare to what we actually have?
It can't prove it, which means you have no business claiming it is a historical event to begin with! That being said, the historical and scientific methods can tell us whether they is any reason to believe it.
Well in a strict use of the word historical, the word cannot be applied to the resurrection, regardless of it happened or not. And secondly nor the historical or scientific method can tell us if a supernatural resurrection happened 2000 years ago, anymore so than algebra can tell us if I've made grammar mistakes. And reason is a tricky word, we all might have reason to believe something happened, even if we lack a historical of scientific means to verify it.
My mother might tell me about an event that happened to her at work, and I might have reason to believe what she said is true based of what I perceive as her character, without seeking to verify that it happened with historical data. And thirdly, history nor science "prove" anything. They are setup only to provide us with what is "most likely" but never proofs.
And as I said this is most likely due to the amount of poor scholarship out there. There is some decent scholarship being produced. One problem is that current New Testament scholarship is filled with practices that you don't find elsewhere in other areas of history. There is certainly enough of a basis for it to be taken more seriously. We need to distinguish between the bad from the good scholarship.
Well, we can all cross our fingers and hope that the Jesus mythicist can produce some "good" scholarship, and perhaps there is some out there in some obscure place on the planet that I have yet to hear of. But the Rook Hawkins claims of Jesus is really Odysseus in disguise, that Mark is plagiarizing Homer, get as far with me as the man who claims that dinosaurs bones are just reorganized chicken bones.
Perhaps there is some good scholarship out there, but I have yet to see it, all I've seen is comical "scholarship", like the above.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
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I doubt many readers here will get this point, because there is something about this that our average atheist just doesn't see. An atheist arguing to me about history doesn't get too far, but an atheist who argues in opposition to the meaning does a lot more, but sadly very few get it.
You've really only hinted at what meaning you're trying to have someone oppose. If you mean the symbolism of martyrdom, I think the original post was actually [presenting] a physical person named Jesus who did all the things that are claimed (if I'm not mistaken). The symbolism of martyrdom is obviously appealing, and has meaning, but that's one of those things that would make a good argument against there being an actual person named Jesus. People want to have that symbol so badly that they'll make it up. The meaning is, indeed, very powerful.
In fact theist reflections on their religion have created far more doubts for me, than anything I've ever heard from a disbeliever. Dostoevsky has placed me on the edge of disbelief; Richard Dawkins is a joke.
I'm assuming you're talking about the Brothers Karamazov, which, I would agree, is a wonderfully brilliant look at religious thought. Just brilliant. But why is Dawkins a joke? His concept of the selfish gene is complete genius. Even if it turns out to be refuted, the poetry of the idea is magnificent in and of itself. If you're talking about his God Delusion book, what did you find objectionable? His tone?
history nor science "prove" anything. They are setup only to provide us with what is "most likely" but never proofs.
Absolutely. But "most likely" is probably what happened. We know that observable miracles do not occur, and we know that the laws of physics haven't been broken in quite some time. The gospel writings tell us that several laws of physics were violated by Jesus. What do we judge of the character of someone who has already probably lied to us?
Proof is only available in math and spirits.
Saint Will: no gyration without funkstification.
fabulae! nil satis firmi video quam ob rem accipere hunc mi expediat metum. - Terence
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Well, I for one believe the Jesus of history to be the Jesus of my religion, but the question here is what exactly does that mean for the Jesus of history to be the Jesus of my religion?
The Jesus of Christianity is a god-man who existed, performed certain miraculous acts, and then rose from the dead. Unless the historical Jesus mirrors this gospel Jesus then you cannot call historical Jesus the Jesus of Christianity.
We can ignore for now the issue of whether he was supernatural and just deal with something that history CAN tell us about (if, of course, there is evidence): whether the events of the gospels themselves are historical, e.g. a man called Jesus (or some variant) preaches a new message, draws large crowds, is noticed and then publicly murdered by the Roman authorities.
First we would have to have an understanding of what the meaning of that religion is, and then we have decided if Jesus is representative of that meaning.
This sounds a lot of you trying to retrofit Jesus and the Christian religion to each other, e.g., the fact we do not have the expected historical information about this Jesus (it's expected given the nature of the claims) means we must start altering and retrofitting the meaning of Jesus, the religion, or both, in order to make them fit.
Now of course I have no problem turning the meaning of Christianity and Jesus in to something more spiritual/non-historical (thus explaining the lack of a historical record) but it is a problem for a Christian to do this, because such a process completely changes the religion; it makes it incompatible with the orthodox Christian doctrine.
Is the meaning of the Gospels a belief that Jesus literally walked on water, and can be historically validated? Is the meaning of the tale of three little pigs, that wolves talk? What are the question the gospel attempts to answer? What is the worldview it is trying to convey?
False analogy. Christianity is not intended to be, nor is it propagated as a mere fairy tale. The gospels are very specific in the things it says. Now, we can allow for some or a lot of embellishment, but even taking that into consideration still leaves us with all sorts of problems. For example, if Jesus is to be rendered into a mere unnoticeable wandering preacher with only a dozen followers (thus explaining the lack of historical information about him) then surely this undermines the entire purpose of Jesus and his message? Why would an omnipotent god send himself/his son down to earth to inform us of this important message only for no one to notice!
The dilemma for many but not all unbelievers is they fail to see this point, there's obsession with the age of science, and there's life of abundance and privilege, leave them foreign to the dilemma of the human condition, where the questions are rarely about history or science, but a way of making sense of a troubling world. Tragedy deals with it questions, that are not scientific inquiry but meaning inquiries, a way to inquire about life to give it some sort of poetic resonance, to give meaning to the meaningless for a shred of hope.
We can still employ scientific methods and values in such a pursuit, indeed, I would argue that we MUST tun to these methods and values for issues regarding meaning. We can still apply poetry, meaning and beauty without having to accept things on insufficient evidence.
Here's a talk by Richard Carrier on the issues of applying scientific values to morality.
Why science is better than religion and always has been:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PNMUz1iediU
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FNkQrDsGy2w
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=S_Zbm9NNRas
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0GkE1TxMRzU
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Y96MFsuT9u8
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eNFIHrp-giw
For me, the real and troubling questions of my life, are the ones the writers and the community of the gospels face, the cross is not just a symbol of misery at one point in history two thousand years ago, but ever present. And the Christ who overcame it, is that ever present hope for lives were no hope is present. I doubt many readers here will get this point, because there is something about this that our average atheist just doesn't see. An atheist arguing to me about history doesn't get too far, but an atheist who argues in opposition to the meaning does a lot more, but sadly very few get it.The cross has a context in history. how many unbelievers know what that context is? Why would those in the first century cling to a belief in Christ's overcoming of it? And why has this become an emblem for suffering people the world over?
I get it... the cross represents both suffering and Christ who overcame his suffering. This in turn provides hope that you too can overcome troubles in your life should they arise. I understand this, however this does not change the fact that this is still historical, factual claims about reality.
Claiming an event happened is not in itself a historical claim. I myself can be a witness to something, that has no preserved evidence or not enough afterwords for historical validation.
What?! Of course it is! To claim something actually happened in history IS a historical claim. The fact there is no evidence of it do not mean claims about it are not historical claims, they are, they are just unjustified historical claims.
But let's look into this claim of their being copious amounts of historical information if Jesus did all things he said he done? Is this necessarily true? Would we expect much more than what we have now if this was true? Was Jesus surrounding himself with people that would create these copious amount of evidence? Perhaps you'd like to make a case for what you think we would have if all the gospels claims actually did happened (even though I don't even believe all the gospels claims happened), and how this would compare to what we actually have?
Yes, we would expect more information. If Jesus was anywhere near the way he is portrayed in the gospels (even sans his divinity), then we would expect more information about him that we currently have. If, for instance, Jesus drew crowds of thousands then we would expect people to have noticed and documented this. We would expect this even if the crowds numbers were much lower. The fact we do not have this leaves us with a few explanations:
1. No one wrote about these events, because they did not happen, because Jesus did not exist.
2. They were highly embellished; Jesus was just some insignificant preacher.
3. They did happen and people did write about it, but we no longer have these documents.
- Number one is a legitimate possibility.
- I already explained above the problem with rendering Jesus to be nothing more than a wandering preacher.
- The idea that people did write about it but we no longer have these writings possible, but the weakest of the three, because even if the original documents were lost, people would likely have cited or mentioned them elsewhere, especially early Christian who were in need of extra-biblical sources, but we do not even have references to such documents.
You say you do not believe all the gospels events actually happened. Can you elaborate. We have no confirmation at all, so how do you decide which gospel events happened, and this did not?
Well in a strict use of the word historical, the word cannot be applied to the resurrection, regardless of it happened or not.
Yes, it can. If 2000 years ago someone did rise from the dead then it would, by definition, be a historical event.
Can you define the word historical. You seems to be using a rather bizarre meaning.
And secondly nor the historical or scientific method can tell us if a supernatural resurrection happened 2000 years ago, anymore so than algebra can tell us if I've made grammar mistakes.
No, but it can tell us if there is any good reason to consider it. We can apply the law of parsimony and see which is more likely - that the law of physics were suspended or that someone wrote a myth/the work was embellished/mis understood/etc. Based on what we do know, the latter is far more likely.
You cannot appeal to the inability of science or history to deal with proposed a supernatural event as a reason why it cannot be criticised, investigated, nor is it a reason to believe it.
And reason is a tricky word, we all might have reason to believe something happened, even if we lack a historical of scientific means to verify it.
Sure, but is the reason valid; sound. Is it justified?
My mother might tell me about an event that happened to her at work, and I might have reason to believe what she said is true based of what I perceive as her character, without seeking to verify that it happened with historical data.
This is a false analogy. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. The something your mother may tell is not comparable to a supernatural claim.
And thirdly, history nor science "prove" anything. They are setup only to provide us with what is "most likely" but never proofs.
Never said it does.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
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What is the evidence that the canonical Gospels are not fictional?
There is no reasonable evidence. I do not know of any good evidence at all. All the arguments that they are not fictional just seem silly.
Any reasonable person who was not biased, who studied the canonical Gospels, would conclude that they were fictional. They are full of magical events, fictional dialog, improbable occurrences. They seem just like the typical fictional writings of those times.
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What is the evidence that anything that Jesus said or anything that happened in the gospels are not derived from earlier pagan stories?
We know so little about the pre-existing beliefs of hundreds of Pagan religions that we do not know if anything in the gospels are original.
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What is the evidence that the canonical Gospels were written before the 4th century?
There is no reasonable evidence. We have a few fragments, obtained from the antiquities trade, that have handwriting similar to that from the middle of the first century. There is rampant forgery in the antiquities trade. The fragments of are most likely modern forgeries because they are exactly what would be most likely to be valuable and most easily forged.
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What is the evidence that there were followers of Jesus of Nazareth before the 4th century?
There is no reasonable evidence. There are several mentions of Christians or Crestians, but they are not substantial evidence. Christians just means "the anointed" and anointing was universally used in religious ceremonies in antiquity. There were several groups known as Cristians that were not followers of Jesus of Nazareth. Chrestians means "the good", and there is evidence that several groups were known as Chrestians. There were thousands of religious groups and any of them could have been called Christians or Chrestians.
The best evidence of the existence of followers of Jesus of Nazareth is that Tacitus mentions Crestians or Christians who are named for someone killed under Pilot, but Tacitus could just be reporting an urban legend about a group called Christians that did not even exist, or it may be a later interpolation in Tacitus, or Tacitus may be an outright Medieval forgery.
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What is the evidence that letters attributed to Paul were written before the 4th century?
There is no reasonable evidence. There are no unambiguous referenced to the letters of Paul that we have today. The best argument I have seen is that they could not be 4th century Roman propaganda because many of them are such obvious forgeries.
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If the letters of Paul were written before the 4th century, What is the evidence that the letters of Paul were written about Jesus of Nazareth?
There is no reasonable evidence. Paul says that Christ lived, was killed, and resurrected, but he does not tell us where it happened or when it happened (he infers it happened in ancient times). He does not mention anything that happened in the gospels. He mentions that he visited Jerusalem, but the only apostle he mentions is James, which was a common name, and might not even be the same James as in the Gospels.
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What is the evidence that any significant group believed in stories about Jesus of Nazareth?
There is no good evidence. There is Christian literature that was supposedly written before the 4th century, but it could be fiction or a forgery. Even if it is not fiction or forgery, a few ancient writers are not evidence that there was a viable religion that existed before the 4th Century. The Gospel of Judas from 290 CE may have been considered a work of fiction. There is a fragment from Dura-Europos supposedly dated 257 CE, but that may be a modern forgery or may be part of a fictional ancient document, or may be Christian writing - we just don't know.
Regarding the Gospel of Thomas, it is not even clear that the Gospel of Thomas is associated with Jesus of Nazareth. The Gospel of Thomas is a sayings gospel that uses a code word for the speaker, and that code word could refer to someone else than Jesus of Nazareth. There is nothing in the Gospel of Thomas that identifies the speaker as the character in the canonical Gospels. Also, there is no good evidence that the Gospel of Thomas existed before the 4th century - it was carbon dated 348 CE.
when you say "faith" I think "evil lies"
when you say "god" I think "santa clause"
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I suggest you learn more about historical methodology, because history like science doesn't "prove" anything, in fact you can claim that all history and science is capable of doing is adding "weight" to an idea.
History operate in a probability framework, in that what is true is that which is most probable.
For history to claim that Jesus existed as a historical person, the claim can be rendered in a proper probability framework as it is more likely that Jesus existed than not existed. This is all that it is needed to demonstrate a historical truth.
(For the most part this is also the same way science operates, but those who are not too familiar with scientific methodology might not immediately get this)
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
1. A rabbi named Jesus who is claimed to be a real person without any historical corroboration? If you've looked at the historical consensus as you claim you have, it is that Jesus of Nazareth may have been historical - not that it is a certainty. "May be" is the strongest I've seen (admittedly I'm new at this).
2. Are you telling me that there are historians that are taking the miracles described in the gospels as historical events? I want their drugs. Taking magic as history is just a little delusional, in my opinion.
3. If what you say about Greco-Roman historians is true (embellishments to the historical characters) why are you defending the Gospels as historical fact? As far as your question, remember that the writers of they Gospels went back throught the OT to find stuff to match the Jesus character they built. I give them credit for digging through the research and making up the backstory for Jesus. It's easy to match a character to history when you're working backwards from conclusion to premises.
"I do this real moron thing, and it's called thinking. And apparently I'm not a very good American because I like to form my own opinions."
— George Carlin
Ok so you can't 'prove' anything purely, sure. But these are just not enough weight to move the scale. It just has too many holes right now. To speak of scientific method...we are leaving too many doors open. We are looking at a subset of the bible and trying to use characteristics that are very vague for this type of character, and others that would mean different things to different people:
"-Jesus' characteristic talk was distinctive. It can usually be distinguished from common lore. Otherwise it is futile to search for the authentic words of Jesus."
-What does this really mean? The whole bible is "distinctive" with it's 'thou art' type of language... What parts of the bible are not 'distinctive'? Also why would any writer who is writing jesus, try and make him sound 'common'?
"-Jesus' sayings and parables cut against the social and religious grain."
-Is this different than 'distinctive'? Not to mention, here again, why is this so unique for a savior type character to go against the 'social and religious grain'? Wouldn't that be expected of any character to meet the main attributes of a savior? Why is it surprising that 5 writers would think to make jesus go against the grain?
"-Jesus' sayings and parables surprise and shock: they characteristically call for a reversal of roles or frustrate ordinary, everyday expectations."
-Is this different than 'against the grain'? Seems to be another way of saying the same thing.
"-Jesus' sayings and parables are often characterized by exaggeration, humor and paradox. "
-Again doesn't seem to specific to me. Not sure I've seen jesus being humorous, but exaggerating and putting for paradox's are characteristics that would be common for anyone claiming to be a prophet or savior. Exaggerations are what make legends\myths the fun fiction stories that they are.
"-Jesus' images are concrete and vivid, his sayings and parables customarily metaphorical and without explicit application. "
-Images? are we talking about what jesus looks like? is his picture that descriptive? The only similarity I see in any jesus pictures is long brown hair and a beard. Wasn't this look pretty common back then? As for sayings and parables being metaphorical, again it seems very common. Isn't the old testament full of metaphors? If someone asked me to write about jesus, this would be a given attribute.
Now, I can't really think of what would be considered 'specific' enough, but these types of characteristics should not convince anyone that there was a man jesus was written after, rather than 5 writers writing about a mythical guy that everyone had heard about, with some of the same characteristics.
I am sure I could come up with a long list of characteristics about the tooth fairy or santa that would match up with many that other people would write. Take 18% of those people's writings and you'll get a more specific seeming set of characteristics.
Well, here's the problem, history nor science claim certainty. And "may be" is a nonsensical term here, and I'd ask that you clarify this more. I can say "may be" for millions of scenarios, maybe Jesus was a space alien, maybe Jesus was a fish, maybe we're all living in the matrix, maybe you can fly and shape shift. So I have no clue as to how you are applying "may be" in a historical sense, or even how you associate the term "strongest" with it?
The proper framework for history is a probability framework. For the question of the existence of the historical Jesus, the actual question would be is it more probable that Jesus existed than not existed? Is it more probable that Gospels are patterned off of an actual historical person (a Jewish rabbi) than not?
The question can be asked as to how do historians determine that it is more probable that Jesus was a historical person than not? Excluding all extra biblical sources and relying on the gospels alone, they do so by doing a reconstruction of the narrative account.
In science we see a pattern of data, and then form a most probable explanation for it. While scientist play with fossils and rocks in restructuring the past, historians who deal with gospels do the same with words and thoughts. A literary reading of he Gospel attempts to convey what they mean, a historical reading of the gospels attempts to determine what is behind the meaning. A literary reading might not focus on discrepancies, while a historical reading will attempt to seek why they are there, as Ahura Mazda did so with the discrepancies with Bethlehem and Nazareth. We can go over a multitude of such discrepancies that are best explained by the writers of the Gospels basing their narrative on a historical person, rather than a purely fictional one.
With the Gospels accounts we have a distinctive character with a distinctive pattern of thought, we have parables, we have the lessons from the sermon on the mount about turning the other cheek, and walking the extra mile, we have stories about the Good Samaritan and the Prodigal son, and etc. etc... And the question would go who do these thoughts belong to?
History makes the claim that the thoughts belong to a distinctive person of history, a Jewish teacher named Jesus.
No one here is defending the gospels as historical fact, we're defending the gospels for the purpose of historical reconstruction, that the gospels have historical value, just like other greco-roman biographies have. These accounts don't lose their value because they are not 100% factual, nor because they contain elements of fiction. A greco-roman biography is not stripped of its historical value for claiming Caesar was born of a god.
The pre-modern world doesn't conform to our modern desire for literalism, and that our biographies and histories are 100% factual. In the pre-modern world factual and fictional accounts are entwined, and the line that distinguishes fact and fiction is organic. Just because the accounts contain embellished elements this does not mean that they don't contain facts as well. They may not be 100% factual, but nor are they 100% fictional.
This would actually be a good argument for the existence of a historical Jesus, i.e. that it more probable that Gospels writers were working backwards to fit a historical person as the messiah than they were doing so with a fictional character. It doesn't make much sense to claim they were working backwards with a fictional character?
If you were working with a fictional character why create him as "non-messiah", and then work backwards to present him as the "messiah"? If you were working with a fictional messiah, why work backwards at all? If i was to create a fictional messiah I would assume that I would make him a good fit for the role, rather than contrived fit, one that hardly even works. With a forced fit messiah it's more probable that it's forcing of a historical person into the role, rather than a fictional one, that wouldn't involve much or any force at all.
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
Let's elaborate on this scale. There are only two possible scenario, two sides of this scale: Jesus existed, or not existed. An even scale implies that the probability for both scenarios is 50/50, and this would be an agnostic view on the subject. Anything that has the potential to tip the scale even the slightest in favor of one side over the other can move the scale. The only thing that can tip the scale into agnostic equilibrium after this, would be something that tips the scale in favor of the opposite side equally.
Anything that has the potential to tip the scale is evidence, agnostic equilibrium implies that either no side has evidence, or that both sides have evidence that is equal in weight.
So now that the model is setup for you, let's ask you the question, as to the state of your equilibrium. Are you claiming that Jesus mythicist, those that believe Jesus did not exist, have no evidence for their argument, and nor do those who claim that Jesus did exist? Or that evidence presented by both sides equals out?
I want you to explore this a little more, and imagine and elaborate on your point a bit better.
When the term distinctive is being used, it is a claim that there is a distinctive pattern that emerges and reveals a single source. Think of it like how we determine plagiarism. Me and you are not going to write the same exact word for word paper, not even the same exact word for word paragraphs, and if such a distinctive pattern emerges in our papers, there is ample reason to believe that there is a single source, either you are copying off of me or vice versa, or that we are both copying off of another single source.
To say there is distinctive "source"/person present in the varying Gospels account uniting them all, is the same thing. The thought patterns, the parables, the stories, the character of Jesus, are proclaimed as distinctive because there is quite a visible pattern that unites these accounts.
And the question goes who do they belong to? Who is the source of turn the other cheek, walk the extra mile, the good samaratin story, the prodigal son? and etc...
I want you to use your imagination, and your ability to articulate to explain what you believe this source to be?
"I'm really an idiot! I have my own head way the fuck up my ass! Watch me dig myself into a hole over and over again!" ~Rook Hawkins (just citing sources)
Man, mortal man.
How about this for your scale... The original post said that only 18% of the bible is being used, as the rest is either in question or not really from Jesus. This is an admission that the rest of the book is false or made up. If we have this many made up stories of Jesus, then by the same logic we can add that other 82% to the other side of the scale. Much like the boy who cried wolf. By the 3rd time he comes yelling, you have to question him, because you now have evidence that at least 66% of the time he's lying!