Question for Christian moderates
I have just one quick question for all the christian moderates out there:
Which passage of the bible nullifies most or all of the rules handed down in the old testament?
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wavefreak wrote:AtheistAviB wrote:No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.
You sure you're following along?
The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.
This has everything to do with that, as the entire reason for the Christians NOT following the laws of the OT is their assessment that Jesus died in fulfillment/removal of the laws of the OT.
Now, as I stated, the OT does not allow for its laws to EVER, under ANY circumstance, be trampled upon. It also does not allow for one to be sacrificed as a savior for the sins of others.
I don't mean to come off as too much of a dick but catching on yet?
The Old Testament is not the primary source for Christians. The New Testament addresses this question directly. So you can either get up to speed and address this question in the context of Christianity and the New Testment or continue to to insist your comment is relevant.
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The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.
There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.
The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.
No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.
Jesus was not simply human, he was also God, so your comment is irrelevant. It also has nothng to do with the question asked.
Actually it has everything to do with the question asked, given that it directly counters the validity of your response to the question.
The question was referencing a passage that allows for all of the OT laws to be let go of and a move into the NT laws. The OT specifies that NONE of the laws held within are going to be let go of, ever, and that no one can die for the sins of another. Furthermore, it says any Messiah that comes along and tries to cancel out/change the OT laws is a false Messiah and should not be listened too.
hey there.
just really quick:
1) The old testament laws are not really "nullified" in any good Christian theology. It's important to understand them as being "fulfilled" rather than "nullified." It is a subtle but important difference.
2) You can see Jesus reinterpreting several of the OT laws in the Sermon on the Mount (Matt 5-7), in addition to breaking Sabbath restrictions and other cleanliness laws many times throughout Gospel narratives.
3) Paul also speaks against the necessity of circumcision (especially in Galatians).
4) In a vision, Peter is presented with a sheet of all kinds of "unclean" foods that God tells him are now "clean" (can't remember where off the top of my head...somewhere in Acts?).
Hope this helps!
Ockham's Razor is only as sharp as you are.
So, does that mean the ten commandments are only for those of jewish descent or jewish religion? Also, where does the bible state that only Jews need follow the old testament?
The fact is that no where in the New Testament were Gentiles commanded to obey Jewish law.
I'll take that as deeds being more instructive than words; however it still bothers me that the laws set down in the old testament were, erm, not quite right. Why would Jesus need to reinterpret the rules of his father (himself if you lean that way), many of which people were smote over in the old testament?
Well, a bit. I'm still rather fuzzy on the altered rules idea. Why change/alter/reinterpret the rules? Did God not know his own creation?
Is there any passage in the bible where Jesus commands (or even states that the gospel is partly directed toward) gentiles? If there isn't, how do we know this gospel applies to anyone but the Jewish people?
If so, would these passages from Matthew apply?
5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
If not, why not?
This appears to be a decent article on this subject
http://www.wcg.org/lit/law/chr%2Dsab/chr-sab1.htm
Sorry can't figure out how to make it a link.
I think Acts 15 will answer your questions. If it does't let me know and I'll try to give you some more answers from my opinion.
Regardless of your persoanl belief, you cannot nullify a tenent of faith - any faith - by simple declaration. That is as arbitrary as me shouting out "all people with green shit go to heaven".
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It's a complex topic, not anything that can be resolved or discussed in a couple posts on a message board. There is a lot that goes into it, but those are some basic elements I pointed to.
I think that part of the reason for the difference between old and new testaments is the evolution of civilization itself: as civilization evolves, so does God's interaction with mankind. There is a lot that could be unpacked there. Secondly, I think there is something of value to be seen in the basic aesthetic concept of dissonance to assonance (musically speaking) or conflict to resolution. That moment when the strains of tension are resolved is a beautiful thing, and often the more tension, the greater the joy and beauty in the resolution.
Another way this could be seen is in common life: if you never have to work hard in order to get good things in life, you really don't appreciate those good things as one who had to work hard for them would appreciate them. I see this possibly coming into play with God and the law. The law weighed so heavy on the hearts of the Jews that when it was finally consummated in Jesus it was a grace worthy of great rejoicing. If there was nothing "hard" about it before, there would not have been as much a cause for rejoicing.
Of course these are just very brief suggestions that could be unpacked significantly, but I just don't have time right now. I'm just trying to offer some quick thoughts. If you have no appreciation of, or place no importance on aesthetic philosophy, these explanations of possibilities are, of course, going to be meaningless. But the more I study art, the more I'm growing to appreciate these things and see their importance.
Take care!
Ockham's Razor is only as sharp as you are.
Well, for starters it's my personal disbelief.
Secondly, I did no such thing. All I have done is try to work within the context of the fairy tale at hand. I don't have to believe in something, Harry Potter persay, to find contradiction and point it out.
Uh,yeah. You basically injected something into the thread that is completely irrelevant. The only thing that follows from your statement is that you can't stick to the subject at hand.
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You sure you're following along?
The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?
The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.
My Artwork
The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.
This has everything to do with that, as the entire reason for the Christians NOT following the laws of the OT is their assessment that Jesus died in fulfillment/removal of the laws of the OT.
Now, as I stated, the OT does not allow for its laws to EVER, under ANY circumstance, be trampled upon. It also does not allow for one to be sacrificed as a savior for the sins of others.
I don't mean to come off as too much of a dick but catching on yet?