A defence of the immaterial mind.
Before I started I thought I should make some points:
1) I know that there have been a several topics of this topic in the forum that I could have put this in but I thought that this one was significantly different enough to warrant its own thread.
2) You'll notice that I am using the word 'immaterial' in a different way to traditional philosophy. I have two reasons for this, that I think it is closer to how we use it in everyday circumstances and that the philosophical version was a perversion of this by trying to squeeze it into our 'world description' frame of language.
The other version is that the philosophical version (as Todangst shows in the topic I link to) is incoherent so this version is the only way the word can have a significant meaning.
This is specifically aimed at Todangst and DeludedGod who have written various essays on this subject, but all views will be welcome.
Todangst has written an essay claiming that immaterial is a broken concept while Deluded God has done a series of essays that deal with the subject.
As I understand it, they both subscribe to physical reductionism, which in contemporary philosophy is the most metaphysically correct position, but one that is at odds with many (if not all!) of our intuitive concepts of the mind.
My aim is to give a conception of the mind that is coherent, respects both materialistic metaphysics and the results of neuroscience and also retains (and vindicates) the common intuitive conceptions of the mind.
(That's right Chris, that fucking nobel prize will be mine for sure! )
This essay will be done in three steps:
1) Define the immaterial mind in a way that is coherent and respects materialist metaphysics.
2) Show that such a conception is compatible with neuroscience and how that traditional 'interactionism' problem is not an issue for this one.
3) Explore how this immaterial mind favours our intuitive conceptions of mind.
Defining the immaterial Mind
Todangsts essay argues that nothing immaterial can exist.
I agree with the essay so have decided to go with denying the 'existence' of the immaterial mind - I've decided that the question of "does the mind exist?" is a bit like "what is the weight of yellow?" is a category error.
So if the mind isn't a 'thing' that 'exists' then what exactly is it?
We use language for a variety of things.
We can greet people, give orders, ask questions, describe the world, etc.
Describing the world is the language we use for science and it is this mode of language that metaphysics is also based on. Everything that we describe is matter and/or motion - material.
Immaterial means not material.
As Todangst has argued, 'immaterial things' are not even defined within the discourse of description, so if I am going to be putting forward a concept that isn't material then it will have to be of a different discourse other than describing and our mental concepts will need a different purpose rather than to describe the world that we live in.
Although we do sometimes use mental concepts to try and describe 'how we are' to another person, this doesn't mean that they descriptions in the same sense as the ones of physical object. E.g. I can describe a table in terms of objective properties like height and colour but with an experience I have to try and work out where my friend might've experienced something similar.
Why do we make such descriptions of our mind to friends?
A common purpose is to explain our actions or to discuss future or hypothetical actions. So we could say that the concepts of mind serve a social purpose, to regulate and make sense of our behaviour.
We use it to explain our actions to other people.
So mental concepts can have a coherent use without being 'things' that exist in the descriptive sense. This allows them to be 'immaterial'.
(I believe that mathematics are also 'immaterial')
One might try and give them a material existence the following way:
Premise 1) Mental concepts are applied in a material setting.
Premise 2) This means that they exist as concepts applied in a material setting.
Conclusion) Mental concepts have a material existence.
However, I disagree with premise 2 as it appears to misuse the word 'existence'. If mental concepts like beliefs and desires exist like that, then so do non-existent objects like unicorns exist as concepts we apply. Actually existing things like tables have multiple existences - existence as the table and existence as the concept of the table... Jesus would have over a billion existences.
'Existence' as used in premise 2 leads to such absurdities that this argument to call 'mind' (or maths) material fails.
So to summarise this first section:
1) I agreed that everything that exists is material and that if something was 'immaterial' then it would have to be a concept from a different use of language rather than to refer to a 'thing' that exists.
2) I gave an alternative use of language to world description, i.e. regulating and making sense of our actions, that would allow mental concepts to be coherent in a 'not material' way. i.e. immaterial.
3) I suggested a possible argument that would claim that such concepts were still material, but I countered that such an argument depended on a misuse of what it was for something to be 'material'.
That leaves me with a coherent immaterial conception of mind that allows materialist metaphysics to be correct. The next question is, does this conception of mind survive the interactionist problem and even if it does, does it cohere with the results of neuro-science?
The immaterial mind meets the brain
The traditional downfall of the immaterial mind is when it comes to interaction with the body. We believe that light stimulating the eyes causes us to experience colours and that the decisions we make cause our actions, but causation as traditionally defined is a relation between two physical concepts. Even emergentists with their physicalist ontology have had difficulties in linking their mental properties with physical ones in a causal chain. If we are going to have the kind of causation as described in the examples above between a material body and non-material mind then we are going to have to take a fresh look at the concept of causation.
The skeleton structure of the concept causation is the counterfactual:
If A hadn't have happened then B wouldn't have happened
How can we know that if A hadn't have happened then B wouldn't have happened?
In physics it is quite easy as we can see situations where the laws of physics would lead from event A to B.
E.g. If I hadn't let go of the coin then it wouldn't have dropped, as the force of gravity on the coin was only countered by the force of my grip on it.
So how can we get a line of causation from my decision to let the coin drop (a mental concept) to the coin's dropping?
Remember I claimed that mental concepts, rather than refer to 'things', were concepts we employed in our human practice of regulating and making sense of our actions. As with all linguistic concepts there are correct ways and incorrect ways to apply them.
Take the greeting 'hello'. The word 'hello' doesn't refer to anything - it has a different linguistic purpose rather than refer to 'things' but there are still correct applications and incorrect applications that we can link with physical situations.
For example, the physical scene of two people meeting is the correct time for them to use the word 'hello' while use of it while parting would be a mis-use.
So although the word 'hello' doesn't refer to anything physical, there is still a connection between the word and the physical situations where it is correct to apply it. This link between the immaterial concept and the physical situation where one should apply it is the meeting point between immaterial mentality and physical actions.
Take the mental concept; Jim deliberately dropped the ball - this concept is a mental concept as it talks of intentions but it is clear that there are limited situations where it would be applicable. A biological machine would have to make the movements whereby a ball is released from it's grasp.
The mental concept involving Jim's intention is to be applied in scene that could be described purely physically, with no intentions or emotions in it. So here we have the supervenience between a mental concept and a physical event. From here we can use the counterfactual version of causation to show a causal relation between the immaterial mental concept of intention and the physical event of the ball dropping to the floor.
We start with the following premises:
Premise 1) Making a decision to 'drop the ball' causes the action 'drop the ball'.
(based on our everyday use of the concept "to make a decision to act")
Premise 2) If we apply a concept of "dropping a ball" then a physical event has occured that involves a biological machine moving in a way that a ball falls from its grasp.
(based on our everyday use of the concept of "dropping the ball")
Premise 3) A biological machine moving in a way that allows a ball to fall from its grasp will cause the ball to drop to the ground.
(based on the laws of physics)
Now for the following steps:
Step 1) If the biological machine hadn't released the ball then it wouldn't have dropped.
(follows from Premise 3 and definition of counterfactual causation)
Step 2) If the concept of "dropping the ball" is applicable if and only if the biological machine releases the ball.
(follows from Premise 2 and definition of counterfactual causation)
Step 3) If the concept of "dropping the ball" hadn't been applicable then the ball wouldn't have dropped.
(follows from steps 1 and 2)
Step 4) If "the decision to drop the ball" hadn't been applicable then neither would the dropping of the ball.
(follows from Premise 1 and definition of counterfactual causation)
Step 5) If "the decision to drop the ball" hadn't been applicable then the ball wouldn't have dropped to the ground.
(follows from steps 4 and 5)
Conclusion) "the decision to drop the ball" causes the ball to be dropped to the ground.
(follows from Step 5 and definition of counterfactual causation)
The argument might not be absolutely logically perfect in the details, but you can see how there can be a 'causal' connection between an immaterial concept and a physical event, thanks to the link of the rule of correct application.
This means that this version the immaterial mind respects materialist metaphysics and the closure principle (that every physical event has a physical cause) without losing its potential for causal relations between itself and the physical body.
The question I must now answer is whether this causal connection fits well with the results of modern neuro-science.
Does this conception of the mind fit in with modern neuro-science
I'm going to admit straight up that I'm not really familiar with the results of modern neuro-science. Instead, my argument is going to be based on what I believe the methodology of neuro-scientific experiments, and try to argue that the very nature of those experiments allows for the mind to be immaterial in the way that I've described. I still start by stating what I understand to be the procedure for empirically verifying connections between the neurological structure of the brain and states of the mind. (Hopefully DeludedGod will be able to confirm or refute my argument.)
Presumably the neuro-scientist will scan the brain somehow to determine what it's physical state is, and find relations between the physical state of the brain and the 'state of mind' that the person is in. They will find the state of the brain using the scanning methods and then see which states of mind it relates to.
But how do they decide which states of mind it applies to?
How do they know that the 'state of mind' that relates to this part of the brain is what they say it is? Presumably, they apply mental concepts as we usually do and are thereby relating the 'state of the brain' with the 'appropiate use of the concept'. So whatever results neuro-science finds, it will be compatable with this 'immaterial mind' as the link between the brain and the mental concept can be explained this way.
To summarise:
1) I explained how an 'immaterial mind' could have a 'causal' connection with physical events, by using the skeletal form of the counter-factual cause and using the "situation of appropiate use" link between certain mental concepts and the physical events the supervene over.
2) I showed that the method of neuro-science ensured that my 'immaterial' theory is compatible with any results it could give. My theory would merely give a different interpretation of those results. Rather than claim that those states of brain are the mental states there's the more intuitive claim that they are just the state of the brain when we apply mental concepts - there would be the same practical purposes.
How this 'immaterial' mind favours lots of intuitive ideas about it.
It's commonly agreed that Descarte's view of the mind was very intuitive, and that it's a shame that he couldn't metaphysically explain such an intuitive picture. The concepts of the mind just didn't seem to behave the same way as spacial ones. If physical reduction has all the metaphysics going for it - the only reason for someone to reject it is if they thought it mis-represented the mind in some way.
Other than pure intuition, this view of the mind does seem to agree with how we generally use mental concepts in real life. We usually explain our actions in a social context and depend on our understanding of other people's beliefs for a sense of security around them, that we can predict and handle how they are going to behave.
It also seems to be the most natural explanation of mental content, especially with Putnam's arguments for 'externalism'.
My main motivation, however, is how it fits our decision making - it allows for libertarian free will. Determinists have traditionally argued that events are either caused or random, and this is true for physical objects because the causal explanation is how we order them and without one they appear to be random. I showed that physical actions can have a causal line from our 'making the decision' to the action itself.
However, the mental concepts that characterise how we make decisions, e.g. desires and beliefs, do not have to have a causal structure. This allows for a spontenaity that allows for a libertarian free will.
This doesn't contradict that the physical world is determined, and in that sense our actions are all determined by the laws of physics. But when we give an explanation that involves 'will' and 'decision making', we aren't giving a physical explanation so different rules apply. This is very similar to Kant's argument for free will, that although the deterministic empirical explanation of the world was deterministic, as not all explanations are based in empiricism then explanations of the mind need not be determined in the same way. His arguments against Hume's compatibilism would support my position too.
This was a relatively rough sketch of a new idea, and it crammed several major topics (ontology, causation, practical use, scientific method etc) into one so it's bound to be very simplified and not account for everything. But I hope that where holes will be found that they will be minor details rather than the core ideas surrounding the theory.
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"Physical reality” isn’t some arbitrary demarcation. It is defined in terms of what we can systematically investigate, directly or not, by means of our senses. It is preposterous to assert that the process of systematic scientific reasoning arbitrarily excludes “non-physical explanations” because the very notion of “non-physical explanation” is contradictory.
-Me
Unfortunately, your essay leaves open attack via simple logic: You concede that 'everything that exists is material' and you claim that 'the mind exists', so by simple deduction, you must concede that the mind is material. (Socrates is mortal too, doncha know.)
Why don't you just say that the mind is information and leave it at that? Information is not *matter*, but it is physical, so in that *very specific* interpretation it is 'immaterial' but still exists, just like an email exists or a running computer program exists.
(For those wondering, I define information as equivalent to structure, form, state, etc. As in, a stable physical relationship between matter/energy within spacetime. For example, atoms exist, but are really just a special arrangement of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Proof: Atoms can be destroyed, but the matter/energy within them cannot be. An atom is a stable physical relationship between matter/energy within spacetime.)
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Strafio,
I think you should rethink your use of the term 'immaterial'. How you are using it is the same as 'abstraction', which I think is better as it avoids potential confusion. In philosophy of mind ‘immaterial’ tends to be used (by dualists) in the traditional philosophical sense so your use of the term will probably be rather confusing (In fact I bet many people will see the title of the thread and think: “not this shit again!”). I think “abstraction” is a far more practical term.
Anyway, I hold the mind (i.e. consciousness, thoughts, emotions, sensations, beliefs, desires, etc) to be abstractions, just like numbers, logic, names, unicorns, and ‘red’ are abstractions. These abstractions are our intuitive or commonsense notion of mind, but in reality, mind is the brain, they’re the same thing. However I think the commonsense notion of mind plays a big role in our social interaction via these abstractions. So I agree with you that the purpose or value of ‘mind’ is in our social context, but I still hold mind exists within a physical matrix (the brain) of which is must as per materialism.
Notice that my explanation acknowledges the physical reality of mind (in that it is equivalent to the brain) as per materialism but still keeps the intuitive notion of mind (the abstractions) that I know you think is important. (And I agree it is important since it plays a big role at our social level. While I think we may technically be able to eliminate this intuitive abstract notion of mind in the future, I don’t think we should.)
For further information on what I mean by “abstraction”, deludedgod describes it as a “lower level ontological category” via reductionism or “the result of synergistic effect[s] in the system” via emergentism:
Fallacies Commonly Employed Against Materialism Refuted:
“So, when the dualist makes the greedy reductionist fallacy by whinging that the materialist is denying the existence of X by invoking reducibility, they are invalidated by both schools of materialism. Reductionism does not say that X does not exist, merely that it is a lower ontological category than its constituents Y and Z. Emergentism says that X exists of its own accord due to a synergistic effect between Y and Z. The latter can be invoked to explain many phenomenon from a materialistic perspective, especially consciousness and the mind. Regardless, any dualist asking for a materialist to explain abstract X is revealing their own unsurprising ignorance of materialist philosophy. Abstractions in this context are merely what a reductionist would call lower ontological categories that result from increasingly complex systems, or what an emergentist would call the result of synergistic effect in the system. Emergentist materialism is extremely important in my work, since one of the things I study is enzyme kinetics, drugs and medicine, where synergistic interplay is extremely important. The same logic which causes a Calcium Channel blocker and a Beta Blocker to work better together to lower blood pressure than the mathematics of their individual workings would have us believe is the same logic that may give rise to abstractions from material systems. In other words, this may cover thoughts, emotions, rationality etc. To a reductionist however, we can explain these in terms of direct reducibility to their electrophysiological activity in corresponding neurons. Regardless of which position you take, the abstract, the thought, is still generated. And hence for the dualist to accuse the materialist of denying said abstractions is just, well, stupid. And can only be described as immensely foolish.”
I don’t think they need to decide since the “state of mind” will be a direct result, it will directly follow. You stimulate a part of the brain, something that is held to be mental happens. To illustrate, when we see the wavelength of red, we don’t apply ‘red’ do we, when we experience pain, we don’t apply ‘pain.’ The nerves send a signal to the brain which are in turn processed by the brain, that causes another part of the brain to processes the concept or thought of pain which and in turn the part of the brain that deals with language/speech may cause us to say “fuck that hurt”. I suspect this is a similar process to other “mental experiences.”
Here’s an example regarding memory retrieval (which I think somewhat relates). It show us a causal chain for certain sensations:
”Nonetheless, similar molecular mechanisms may be at work in these memory types. Almost all theories of memory propose that memory storage depends on synapses, the tiny connections between brain cells. When two cells are active at the same time, the connection between them strengthens; when they are not active at the same time, the connection weakens. Out of such synaptic changes emerges an association. Experience can, for example, fortify the connections between the smell of coffee, its taste, its color, and the feel of its warmth. Since the populations of neurons connected with each of these sensations are typically activated at the same time, the connections between them can cause all the sensory associations of coffee to be triggered by the smell alone.”
Source
So for example, there may be a physical connection between the experience of something and our memory of things associated with it. So seeing the wavelength of green may causally recall the name ‘green’ and things associated with the colour, such as "grass" or "green is my favourite colour", etc. Experiencing pain may causally recall everything we personally associated it, including the verbal expressions etc.
Anyway, I enjoyed the post. I’ll be interested to see what other think.
"It is far better to grasp the universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring" -- Carl Sagan
I think that we are defining “material” and “immaterial” in different ways from each other. The way you are defining immaterial is an entity which arises fromphysicality but is not a physical entity per se. This is a subsection of materialism. However, the way the tod and I are defining immateriali is the same way that the theists are: Not based on the physical. Having no physical constituents. Also, I do not subscribe to reductionism. I hover on the fence between reductionism and emergentism. I generally hold that the mind is emergent not reductionist. However, it is still material.
But this could only be done if we defined “immaterial” as an emergent entity from a materialist system! Even if it is not physical per se. The way you are defining immaterial is the way that an emergent materialist would do so. Not a theist who believes that the mind is a separate agent from the physical. That is what we are attacking. The former is reasonable. The latter is nonsense. You will notice, as Topher quoted me, that I actually already pointed this out in my essay:
I wrote:
One of the things I covered in the other essay (albeit not with this specific terminology) is the concept of ontological orders. We have higher ontological status and lower ontological status. The lower ontological status arises from the higher ontological status. A finger is a higher ontological status than a working hand. A fermion is a higher ontological status than a quark, and a quark higher than a proton, and a proton higher than an atom. In other words, the concept of an ontological status requisites materialism. Not necessarily reductionism because it can also encompass emergentism but it does necessitate that beings exist due to the existence of higher ontological status. Eventually, according to the grand unifying theory of physics, we keep going back and we eventually hit the highest possible ontological status, the absolute substance (or perhaps lack thereof) from which all is composed. A quick versing in the basic ontology behind this can be found in my essay Common Fallacies Employed Against Materialism Refuted where I wrote:
Quote:
The crux of all this is that the dualist who asserts that materialism cannot account for X abstraction is that they are making a fallacy of conflation between reductionism and materialism. Reductionism is merely one arm of the materialist school of thought. We also have to take into account, for this exercise, emergentism, which materialism does indeed encompass. Emergentism is the doctrine that properties emerge from systems that are not necessarily reducible to their constituents. They exist only when the system is in place, and are hence not reducible to the sum of their parts. This is the schism in materialism between reductionism (whole=sum of parts) and emergentism (whole>sum of parts). The point is, these are both materialist positions. Neither invocates dualism or magic. So when the dualist is asserting that the materialist is denying the existence of X because it can be reduced to smaller constituents, they are making the greedy reductionist fallacy. Regardless of whether the system in question is emergentist or reductionist, the fallacy holds. It is analogous to saying:
1. The clicking on hyperlinks can be reduced to electrons being fired across LCD electron guns and photons through ethernet and fiberoptic cables. Therefore hyperlinks do not actually exist, only electrons and photons.
2. An atomic nuclei can be reduced to individual protons and electrons, which in turn can be reduced to quarks, which in turn can be reduced to bosons and fermions. Therefore, atoms do not actually exist, only bosons and fermions.
You will find that many materialist systems are indeed emergentist. That means that they cannot be reduced to their constituents, they only emerge when the complexity of the system reaches a certain point, but, the crux: They are still materialist. Emergentism is an arm of materialist philosophy. Many naturalists regard consciousness and the mind as an emergent property of the brain. Some others hold that the mind can be divided and is hence, with respect to the whole brain, reductionist, not emergent. I am sympathetic to a middle ground position . Obviously when we reduce the system to a certain degree, we find the property which we were examining in the first place disappears. Hence to some degree the two positions of emergentism and reductionism are valid and mutually reconcilable in much the same way that empiricism and rationalism are reconcilable. In fact, I do not think there has been a “pure” empiricist or rationalist since the days of Immanuel Kant. Likewise, the materialist philosophy does not usually find one taking a pure stance on emergentism or reductionism.
So, when the dualist makes the greedy reductionist fallacy by winging that the materialist is denying the existence of X by invoking reducibility, they are invalidated by both schools of materialism. Reductionism does not say that X does not exist, merely that it is a lower ontological category than its constituents Y and Z. Emergentism says that X exists of its own accord due to a synergistic effect between Y and Z. The latter can be invoked to explain many phenomenon from a materialistic perspective, especially consciousness and the mind. Regardless, any dualist asking for a materialist to explain abstract X is revealing their own unsurprising ignorance of materialist philosophy. Abstractions in this context are merely what a reductionist would call lower ontological categories that result from increasingly complex systems, or what an emergentist would call the result of synergistic effect in the system. Emergentist materialism is extremely important in my work, since one of the things I study is enzyme kinetics, drugs and medicine, where synergistic interplay is extremely important. The same logic which causes a Calcium Channel blocker and a Beta Blocker to work better together to lower blood pressure than the mathematics of their individual workings would have us believe is the same logic that may give rise to abstractions from material systems. In other words, this may cover thoughts, emotions, rationality etc. To a reductionist however, we can explain these in terms of direct reducibility to their electrophysiological activity in corresponding neurons. Regardless of which position you take, the abstract, the thought, is still generated. And hence for the dualist to accuse the materialist of denying said abstractions is just, well, stupid. And can only be described as immensely foolish. We shall soon see how easy it is to flip this on its head.
So, if we examine the dualist assertion which is necessary to make the God entity possible, they are:
1) The mind need not be dependent on the material.
2)It can exist extraneous of the physical
I have shown this absurd from all sides, but if we examine it now, it simply becomes apparent their assertion is that the mind is a higher ontological status than the material. But everything we know about reality indicates the opposite is true. The mind is an extremely low ontological status. It is an entity which emerges after the most painstaking evolution. I actually outlined some of the mathematics and entropy probabilities here:
The Absurdity of the Cosmological Argument
The point is that I have raised another reason why the immaterial mind is absurd. The mind is a much lower ontological status than the material. It as an entity is extremely improbable and can only come after billions of years of painstaking evolution. It cannot exist as some sort of “free entity” in the void, nor can it be an eternal entity, nor can it be an entity independent of the material. In essence that would be claiming that the “mental” is the highest ontological status! Surely one has only to open a journal and read about the utterly vast complexities of neuroscience and neurophenomenology to realize the mind is a deeply complex and painstakingly arranged machine. That we may claim it could exist as holding the attributes of “God” is simply ridiculous, if for no other reason that the mind is an extremely low ontological status. Hence, the invocation of a mind as a solution to a posteriori problems of complexity or problems of necessity is merely circular reasoning. I already iterated this of course, I am merely hammering it home.
This again, only works if you subscribe to the emergentist position on “immaterial” that I brought up. Not the theist one.
You will find that your definition, which is essentially an entity which emerges as a result of a physical system, is concurrent with materialism. However, the theist, who believes that the mind, or the mind of God, is an utterly separate agent and ontological category from the physical, is making an assertion which is absurd.
I would say that the mind is a process, not an entity. I made this point here:
But now you are making a fallacy of equivocation, since the mind you are defining is not immaterial at all! It may not be a physical entity per se, but rather a process that emerges as the result of physical entities. IN essence we are in concurrence, then. The only people whose view is absurd is the theists’ since they hold that the mind is a separate agent from the physical. I pointed this out in my essay Topher quoted about distinguishing between something which is truly “immaterial” and merely a physical abstraction:
Let us begin with a common objection. This one is not a consequentialist argument, but it is terrible all the same. It essentially states the materialist cannot account for abstraction, which is to say that things like thoughts, emotions, actions, or even (this is the worst) information cannot be accounted for under the physicalist worldview. Out of amused cruelty, I have called this the “Mary Midgley fallacy, in dishonor of the Oxford philosopher who said: Matter being all that exists is a self-refuting idea (stolen concept), since the argument would deny its own existence. She calls it “self-refutation of eliminative materialism”.
I am genuinely embarrassed that so-called “professional of philosophy” have trotted out with this tripe, not least of which from an institution like Oxford. It does not bear well.
Need I remind anyone that these so-called abstractions are processes, which is to say they are causal interactive events which occur between physical entities. If materialism did not encompass process as well as being it could not deal with the fact that motion existed! How silly a fallacy of composition to claim that if all that exists is physical, processes which result from physicalism are eliminated!
The chain of thought which must go through their mind is fascinating to contemplate, it must go something like this:
I bounce the basketball with my hand
My hand and the bastketball are both made of matter
Matter is all that exists
When my hand (material) acts on the basketball (material) it moves
The movement is not “made” of matter
Therefore the movement does not exist
When I deliberately word it like that, it sounds ridiculous. And it is ridiculous. Anyone with half a brain will be able to see the fallacy of composition located in the implication that since the process is not . But replace “motion” with “thoughts” or “information” and the dualists happily take the bait like a swarm of unusually stupid fish.
It’s ludicrous
Presumably we do not pin the existence of motion on some sort of mysterious vitalism (although ancient scientists did believe in ether, that was thrown out during the scientific revolution of the 18th century).
I think that out of all of these “abstractions”, the worst example is “information”. I get genuinely insulted when a dualist brings up “how does the materialist account for “information or data” for two reasons
1) Most of the time, if you ask them, they do not know what information or data is
2) I spent years poring over the information/entropy laws in university, a process I refuse to go through again.
In the essay I wrote called The Matter/Information Conjecture is a Crisis For the Existence of God I wrote a detailed explanation of the relationship between matter and energy, and explained in full how the entity (matter) gives rise to the process (information):
the_matter_information_conjecture_is_a_crisis_for_the_existence_of_god
And then I described reductionism and emergentism below.
[quote
Although we do sometimes use mental concepts to try and describe 'how we are' to another person, this doesn't mean that they descriptions in the same sense as the ones of physical object. E.g. I can describe a table in terms of objective properties like height and colour but with an experience I have to try and work out where my friend might've experienced something similar.
Why do we make such descriptions of our mind to friends?
A common purpose is to explain our actions or to discuss future or hypothetical actions. So we could say that the concepts of mind serve a social purpose, to regulate and make sense of our behaviour.
We use it to explain our actions to other people.
So mental concepts can have a coherent use without being 'things' that exist in the descriptive sense. This allows them to be 'immaterial'.
(I believe that mathematics are also 'immaterial'
Again, the way you are defining “immaterial” is fundamentally different from the way we are in our essays. You are defining immaterial as emergentist. This is false. These entities that emerge from physical systems but have no recognizable physicality themselves are not immaterial the way Tod and I are describing it. They are physical abstractions. In essence they are lower ontological categories from the physical entities from which they emerge. But the theist “immateriality” is a higher ontological category. The latter, I showed, is utter nonsense. The former (your definition) is totally reasonable and I think we are in concurrence over that. But theists hold the latter position and that is absurd.
However, I disagree with premise 2 as it appears to misuse the word 'existence'. If mental concepts like beliefs and desires exist like that, then so do non-existent objects like unicorns exist as concepts we apply. Actually existing things like tables have multiple existences - existence as the table and existence as the concept of the table... Jesus would have over a billion existences.
'Existence' as used in premise 2 leads to such absurdities that this argument to call 'mind' (or maths) material fails.
But again we are defining immaterial in different ways! Thoughts exist as lower ontological categories than the neurons which create them. So thoughts about non-existent entities exist as these abstractions. You are making a fallacy of equivocation between abstract representations of X and X per se. So, the immaterial mind you are defining is one which I would recognize as an emergent process from physicality. This is totally and utterly different to the absurd theist assertion of the mind as a higher/separate ontological category that could exist without the physical.
But again, we are at no disagreement! The alternative way in which you define immaterial is recognized as emergent materialism. But the “immaterial” Tod and I were discussing is the theist “immaterial” utterly and wholly separate frim the physical.
But there shouldn’t be any interactionist problem in your scenario, since the mind emerges from the physical even if it not physical per se! The only reason theists have an interaction problem is because they define the immaterial mind as atemporal hence non spatial hence the idea of it “interaction” is nonsense.
[quote
The immaterial mind meets the brain
The traditional downfall of the immaterial mind is when it comes to interaction with the body.
But thats the whole point! The downfall of traditional immateriality! Theists still hold to traditional immateriality. I have shown this as nonsense. What yo are defining as immaterial really is not immaterial at all, but rather emergent abstraction.
But in this context the idea of an “immaterial mind” merely means the mind is not a distinct physical entity. It is merely the result of the interactions between physical entities. But we can link physical events in a causal chain since mental events are generated by physical activity. From my essay on neuroscience:
Sounds like Hume. As I said before, we cannot know with absolute certainty the causal relationship between entities. However, we can know the probability of correlation between them. But that was not the point I was making. The point was that the whole concept of causation relies on space and time. Hence, to claim that any reference could be made to causation for an entity outside of spatiotemporality is ridiculous.
Oh. That. Well, we can demonstrate that reasonably well, provided you were hooked up to an fMRI, an EEG, a PET, and a CAT scan, which means it would be difficult to drop the ball anyway. But neuroscience can show how decisions and thoughts are made and translated into actions. I showed that here:
The science of consciousness is all about unity of the lobes of the brain, and can be demonstrated likewise: I am referring to what modern neuroscientists called apraxia, a situation which results in a longitudinal divide along the corpus callosum in epilepsy patients, which causes the dominant hand of the patient to undergo involuntary movement and uncontrollable motor functions. The hand might undo buttons, light cigarettes, even strike objects without the users control. However, combined magnetoencephelogram scanning and neurophenomenology conducted after Penfield died in 1976 have revealed that this very rare form of epillepsy apraxia is caused by the damage caused to the medial lobes by the incision along the major axis of the brain. There are different brain functions associated with voluntary movement, the cerebellum for proprioception, the grid neuron array for mechanoperception, Acetylocholin-based Somatic and visceral motor neurons which run up the body's planar axis through the center of the spinal cord and into the Sensory Somatic Cortex. The incision along the brain's long axis severs the connection between the lobes controlling movement, with the result that different areas of the brain may at different times be able to command the hand in different ways, but since they are not connected, conscious control over it is lost. Actually, apraxia is often used to make the neurophysiological distinction between intention of execution otherwise known as Executive function (Anterior Cingulate Cortex), and actual execution. In other words, we can show that the self loses control of the hand due to apraxia due to a division along the major long axis of the brain, and although the kinesthetic sensation is there, the sensation of conscious control over the hand is not. For this reason, most neurophysiologists consider that at the supramolecular level, there is an electrophysiological event which translates intent into action. The general area which does this has been pinpointed by fMRI as the medial fronal lobe. Recently, neuroimaging has revealed the area of the brain responsible for decisional inhibition to be in the parietaloccipatal system. The damage or destruction of this system results in the loss of executive functional inhibition, with the result that the subject may lose conscious control over many physiological functions. But since the area of the brain responsible for action is located on the other lobe of the brain, the result of an incision along the corpus callosum will be in rare cases the loss of ability for interagency neurological control over such functions, with apraxia, with the result that a conscious self loses control for periods of time over the limb in question unless treated. The very fact that it can be treated in a neurological fashion hence indicates that you are dead wrong. Since the brain is a contralateral control system, which means that damage to the posterior medial lobe results in involuntary movement in the opposite function, the same for the parietal-occipatal system, since the corpus callosum is the link between these two areas and the subcortical synaptogenesis which develops when basic motor skills do, the exertation of control over the movement is partitioned into four areas. In other words, we are seeing exactly what we expect to see with an epillepsy patient experiencing apraxia under IET stimulation.
But you are still defining “immaterial” in a way I would ultimately reject. The entity you describe is no more “immaterial” than “motion” is “immaterial”. As for the actual process of making the decision, and the causation of that, I have shown that above.
Yes, of course. And there is in turn a causal event which caused the decision to drop the ball to made and in turn an event which translated the intent into execution into action. However, this is all going on within absolute spacetime, and hence the way you are defining immaterial is still in my concurrence: it is emergent materialism. We must remember that theistic immaterialism postulates an entity not dependant on physical, a higher ontological category, and outside space and time, with no physical composition from which the mental function might emerge: Surely, this is complete nonsense.
You are talking about the procedure of brain-mapping. Here is what we do. The brain is a sub-partitioned organ with thousands of different functions. There are 9,000 types of neurons and each type of neuron behaves differently. By this the brain is partitioned into neural clusters an each one responds in a precise fashion to various external and internal stimuli. The brain is a highly plastic organ and the result
If you read the apraxia paragraph again, you will notice that I said conscious control is an emergent property of the interagency system of all the lobes of the brain in question. Hence, cutting the connections causes the control to separate. You can have kinaesthetic control and sensation but no conscious control until it is repaired.
Anyway, brain mapping is done like thus. I do not work in neuroscience, even though I am versed in it (mostly in molecular neuroscience, neurobiology and neurocellular transducution and physiology). We inject the subject with a contrast radioactive dye before mapping his brain in an fMRI machine, which allows us to monitor the brain. The contrast is flowing though his bloodstream and a radioactive counter can pick it up. Since the concentration of the dye is evenly distrubted across the blood vessels, the color of the area in question indicates the rate of blood flow. If a sudden surge of blood flow occurs in a patient with contrast radioisotope injected, then that area will “light up” on the fMRI. This is how we monitor brain activity. The room is utterly still and silent. We control the various stimuli into the room. For example, we might play music, or flash colors, or read, or read in a different language. The number of stimuli for different mental functions is utterly endless. And eventually, doing this thousands of thousands of times for thousands of subjects, we construct a “map” of the brain and all its areas.
But you still are not defining “immaterial” in the same way that I am. The reason the theist immateriality could not have any sort of causation is because it is atemporal. This makes it absurd.
But that is merely replacing reductionism with emergentism. It says nothing on theistic dualism.
OK, that is simply untrue. The way you are defining immaterial is fundamentally different from Descartes. Descartes view was ridiculous. He believed the mind was a separate agent from the physical world. The poor guy was crushed by neuroscience. The view you are advocating is not that the mind is a separate agent, but rather a lower ontological category than the physicality which generates it.
Er, no, that is highly inaccurate. The decision and desire and belief all have causal structure! I can show that using neuroscience. Please refer back to the piece I wrote on apraxia to show the causal nature of belief. In neuroscience there is no such thing is genuine spontaneity (please refer to the part I wrote on stimuli and the causal nature of decision making the Anterior Cingular Cortex). In neuroscience a thought is essentially a combination of sensation, perception and memory (genetics determine it too), hence it is all causal. Again, refer back to what I wrote before on sensation, NTD and why the mind cannot be a separate agent. It is generated by the brain. Hence, it is wholly caused by the physical events of the brain.
That is not true. If that were true, then the patient would not lost conscious control over their hand (even though they retain kinaesthetic and sensation when we divided the corpus callosum).
Kant’s view is not supported by modern neuroscience. We do not take it seriously. Free will is not “outside space and time”. Will, or “conscious control” according to neuroscience, is a process generated by interagency lobe control, hence dividing the axis of the brain causes the loss of executive function! And then...when we repair it, it returns. Would this be possible if it were not determinate or causal or generated by the material?