question about hitchens claim about no hell reference in old testiment
Hello. I was wondering if anyone has any knowledge about this...maybe this is a translation issue. I was making claim to someone in a letter the hell was not mentioned in the old testament based on hearing Christopher Hitchens say it and I decided to do a search and found these... Did I misunderstand Hitchens...
Isaiah 5:14; Isaiah 14:9; Isaiah 14:15; Isaiah 28:15; Isaiah 28:18; Isaiah 57:9; Ezekiel 31:16; Ezekiel 31:17 (New King James Version)
some say hell and some say Sheol which sounds kind of like Hades from the Greek
“When I get a little money I buy books; and if any is left I buy food and clothes.” Desiderius Erasmus
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Depends on the version you read. The english translations all came from the same source word "sheol" has a number of meanings and the english translations tended to 'pick and choose' based on who was doing the translations as to which translations to choose.
The word itself can simply mean "the grave" or "pit". Some decide to interpret this reference as "hell" or the "underworld" though it is not a clear reference to "hell" and many argue that it is not intended to mean hell. This is why many religious sects that base themselves upon the Old Testatment including many Christian sects reject the concept of hell.
My guess is that someone with a jewish background would be better to answer this question. Christians tend to disregard the OT in favor of the NT so most have little real knowledge of the OT. My understanding of the bible, which is very limited, tells me that there is some contradiction in the existence of hell as we tend to think of it. Sheol is commonly referenced in the OT as a place where all people go and are isolated from god in some aspect. I think it was Daniel that expanded on Sheol in that there were 4 distinct sections. Where someone was sent after death depended on what they did during their life. The hell we tend to think of as fire and brimstone, as far as I can gather, isn't even supposed to exist until the messiah returns. My big question is if humans go to heaven or hell when they die why the need for the resurrection of christians in revelations of those that died "in christ". I don't know if this is a contradiction or not, actually I could care less.
From what I understand about judaism the afterlife isn't as important as the here and now. Then again I don't understand the criteria jews in the OT are judged against to determine their salvation. It isn't as "clear" as it is in the NT. I hope this helps because all that shit is confusing to me. I guess the writers must have not been as inspired as we have been led to believe.
"Always seek out the truth, but avoid at all costs those that claim to have found it" ANONYMOUS
This is an awesome book (free to read online): The Origin and History of the Doctrine of Endless Punishment
Stultior stulto fuisti, qui tabellis crederes!
thats cool that the whole book is online
There ARE hell references in the bible, a few even, but the most common translation of the English word "Hell" into Hebrew is "Gehenom" which as far as I know (well, read) was never mentioned in the Old Testament as hell, but rather as a place which is believed to be near Jerusalem and was only mentioned as a landmark.
However, "Gehenom" is merely the most common translation - there are several like"Azazel", "Avadon / Abbadon" and "Sheol" which ARE mentioned (at least one of them) in the Old Testament.