Questions about "The God Who Wasn't There"
Hi all,
I am a strong atheist, and am not in anyway a theist. I have a few questions about the film, The God Who Wasn't There.
First, I think this was done well, and it's a good tool to help bring atheist out of the closet, and to help agnostics make up their minds. Most of the movie wasn't new, as we've all has similar personal experiences, and especially similar experiences with theists.
However, the movie did introduce two new concepts, here they are:
1. Flemming says, "Paul doesn't believe that Jesus was ever a human being. He's not even aware of the idea! And he's the link between the time frame given the life of Jesus and the appearance of the gospel account of that life."
2. "If Jesus had been on earth, he would not even have been a priest." -Hebrews 8:4
I'll address number 2 first. In my Bibles (KJV and NIV), number two is worded differently, and the way it's written the implied meaning seems to be "if he were on earth right now." I assume that Flemming had a newer translation, and I was just wondering what the source was.
As for the first point, I brought it up in a conversation with a theist friend, and he quickly pointed out a Bible and pointed to areas attributed to Paul where it's clearly referencing. Yes, he's a motherfucker. So, my second question is, what's the basis of Flemming's statement?
This may sound like criticism, but it's not. I am just trying to gain a better understanding, which, after all, is what led me away from theism in the first place.
"Is God willing to prevent evil, but not able? Then he is not omnipotent. Is he able, but not willing? Then he is malevolent. Is he both able and willing? Then whence cometh evil? Is he neither able nor willing? Then why call him God?" - Epicurus
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thingy wrote:2. No two languages have a 1:1 translation. Due to this there's always some influence on the translated text from the person or people who did the translating. It is up to them to take the words in the original language and rephrase it in the way they feel makes the most sense and gets the correct message across in the target language. Now add gospel or fundy coloured glasses to this and you get "if he were on earth right now" as that is the understanding of that particular line to the person doing the translation (provided of course they're not being dishonest). The translation used by Harris is a more direct translation, a closer correlation between the original language (greek/hebrew depending on the text in question) and the target language (english) if it were being translated by someone who wasn't already indoctrinated and affected by the bias of the religion.
There's many differing claims out there as to which version of the bible is the most accurate. Those who prefer the lovey dovey story generally say the NIV is. Scholars and those without gospel coloured glasses generally say it's the worst if I'm not mistaken.
I agree with this, as it's my general assumption, but I'd really like to know if there's a source that I can check.
1. It would probably help us if you could let us know which parts of Paul he pointed out. There's a difference between what theists attribute to Paul and what scholars attribute to Paul, keep that in mind. I should know which those sections are by now I've read it often enough, but alas I don't.
1 Corinthians – 15:3-7
Galatians 1:13-24
Galatians 2:9-10
Colossians 4:14
2 Timothy 4:11
Philemon 1:24
Basically, any information would be helpgful. I really haven't devoted my time to studying Christian mythology in a long time, as I find it takes away from more important things.
Hmm, i checked http://www.biblegateway.com/, under the New International Version, and found very little relevance to jesus behing a human in these passages.
He gets close when he says that jesus 'appeared' to him, but what distinguishes this from being a non-human appearance?
The rest of these passages seem not to refer to the topic of jesus being human at all, I'm confused, maybe I looked up the wrong ones?
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2. No two languages have a 1:1 translation. Due to this there's always some influence on the translated text from the person or people who did the translating. It is up to them to take the words in the original language and rephrase it in the way they feel makes the most sense and gets the correct message across in the target language. Now add gospel or fundy coloured glasses to this and you get "if he were on earth right now" as that is the understanding of that particular line to the person doing the translation (provided of course they're not being dishonest). The translation used by Harris is a more direct translation, a closer correlation between the original language (greek/hebrew depending on the text in question) and the target language (english) if it were being translated by someone who wasn't already indoctrinated and affected by the bias of the religion.
There's many differing claims out there as to which version of the bible is the most accurate. Those who prefer the lovey dovey story generally say the NIV is. Scholars and those without gospel coloured glasses generally say it's the worst if I'm not mistaken.
1. It would probably help us if you could let us know which parts of Paul he pointed out. There's a difference between what theists attribute to Paul and what scholars attribute to Paul, keep that in mind. I should know which those sections are by now I've read it often enough, but alas I don't. If you're willing to do some reading on the subject look for "Deconstructing Jesus" by Robert M Price and "The Jesus Puzzle" by Earl Doherty. Both great books.
I'm sure there will be a few others who will jump in here and answer your questions much better than I have. Just be patient. In the meantime, if this type of discussion you have had with your friend isn't out of place it might be an idea to peruse the essays and blog posts done on this site by Rook Hawkins.
Organised religion is the ultimate form of blasphemy.
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I agree with this, as it's my general assumption, but I'd really like to know if there's a source that I can check.
1. It would probably help us if you could let us know which parts of Paul he pointed out. There's a difference between what theists attribute to Paul and what scholars attribute to Paul, keep that in mind. I should know which those sections are by now I've read it often enough, but alas I don't.
1 Corinthians – 15:3-7
Galatians 1:13-24
Galatians 2:9-10
Colossians 4:14
2 Timothy 4:11
Philemon 1:24
Basically, any information would be helpgful. I really haven't devoted my time to studying Christian mythology in a long time, as I find it takes away from more important things.
"Is God willing to prevent evil, but not able? Then he is not omnipotent. Is he able, but not willing? Then he is malevolent. Is he both able and willing? Then whence cometh evil? Is he neither able nor willing? Then why call him God?" - Epicurus